AHSEC HS 1st Year Political Science Solved 2025 Question Paper [Assam Board Class 11 Political Science Solved Question Papers]

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HS First Year Political Science Solved Question Paper 2025

2025  

POLITICAL SCIENCE  

Full Marks: 80  

Pass Marks: 24  

Time: 3 hours

The figures in the margin indicate full marks for the questions.  

Give the answers of Part-A in the OMR Answer-Sheet provided.

ALLOTMENT OF MARKS  

Part-A: 

Q. Nos. 1 to 40 carry 1 mark each (1 × 40 = 40)  

Part-B:  

- Q. No. 41 carries 2 marks each (any five out of ten) (2 × 5 = 10)  

- Q. No. 42 carries 3 marks each (any five out of ten) (3 × 5 = 15)  

- Q. No. 43 carries 5 marks each (any three out of six) (5 × 3 = 15)  

Total = 80

 PART-A (Marks: 40)  

Choose the correct answer: 1 × 40 = 40  

1. The Greek word 'Polis' means
(a) city-state
(b) civil society
(c) citizen
(d) state
Answer: (a) city-state
Verification: The Greek word "Polis" refers to a city-state, an independent urban center with its own government, such as Athens or Sparta.

2. The autobiography written by Nelson Mandela is
(a) Hind Swaraj
(b) Long Walk to Freedom
(c) Freedom from Fear
(d) Das Kapital
Answer: (b) Long Walk to Freedom
Verification: Nelson Mandela’s autobiography, published in 1994, is titled Long Walk to Freedom.

3. Right to work is a/an
(a) economic equality
(b) political equality
(c) social equality
(d) cultural equality
Answer: (a) economic equality
Verification: The right to work is classified as an economic right, linked to employment and livelihood, often under economic equality frameworks.

4. Confucius was a
(a) Greek philosopher
(b) Burmese philosopher
(c) Chinese philosopher
(d) Japanese philosopher
Answer: (c) Chinese philosopher
Verification: Confucius (551–479 BCE) was a renowned Chinese philosopher whose teachings shaped East Asian thought.

5. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was introduced in the General Assembly of the UN on
(a) 9th December, 1948
(b) 10th December, 1948
(c) 11th December, 1948
(d) 12th December, 1948
Answer: (b) 10th December, 1948
Verification: The UDHR was adopted by the UN General Assembly on December 10, 1948.

6. Who launched the Civil Rights Movement in the USA?
(a) Martin Luther King
(b) Abraham Lincoln
(c) Nelson Mandela
(d) George Washington
Answer: (a) Martin Luther King
Verification: Martin Luther King Jr. is widely recognized as a key leader who galvanized the Civil Rights Movement in the 1950s and 1960s.

7. The word 'Nation' originated from the Latin word
(a) Nato
(b) Natio
(c) Naso
(d) Native
Answer: (b) Natio
Verification: "Nation" derives from the Latin "natio," meaning birth or tribe.

8. The opposite of 'secular State' is called
(a) theocratic State
(b) feudal State
(c) religious State
(d) marginal State
Answer: (a) theocratic State
Verification: A secular state separates religion from governance, while a theocratic state is governed by religious principles.

9. The author of the book, Republic is
(a) Plato
(b) Aristotle
(c) Socrates
(d) Machiavelli
Answer: (a) Plato
Verification: Plato wrote Republic, a philosophical work discussing justice and the ideal state.

10. Who is the author of the book, Hind Swaraj?
(a) Nathuram Godse
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Jayaprakash Narayan
(d) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer: (b) Mahatma Gandhi
Verification: Mahatma Gandhi wrote Hind Swaraj in 1909.

11. "Politics is a bridge between the city of human being and the city of God." This statement was said by
(a) J. S. Mill
(b) Aristotle
(c) St. Augustine
(d) Plato
Answer: (c) St. Augustine
Verification: St. Augustine discussed the relationship between human society and divine order in The City of God.

12. The author of the book, On Liberty is
(a) Green
(b) J. S. Mill
(c) Gabriel Almond
(d) Laski
Answer: (b) J. S. Mill
Verification: John Stuart Mill wrote On Liberty in 1859.

13. The movie of Deepa Mehta is
(a) Space
(b) Water
(c) Sky
(d) Air
Answer: (b) Water
Verification: Deepa Mehta directed Water in 2005.

14. "Capitalism is the enemy of the world." This was remarked by
(a) Karl Marx
(b) Aristotle
(c) Plato
(d) Machiavelli
Answer: (a) Karl Marx
Verification: Karl Marx strongly critiqued capitalism, particularly in The Communist Manifesto.

15. The book, A Theory of Justice is written by
(a) David Easton
(b) John Rawls
(c) Gabriel Almond
(d) Aristotle
Answer: (b) John Rawls
Verification: John Rawls published A Theory of Justice in 1971, discussing fairness in society.

16. The word 'Liberty' came from the Latin word
(a) Liber
(b) Law
(c) Lower
(d) Liver
Answer: (a) Liber
Verification: "Liberty" originates from the Latin "liber," meaning free.

17. Who among the following said that politics envelops us like the coils of a snake?
(a) Garner
(b) Gandhiji
(c) Gabriel Almond
(d) David Easton
Answer: (b) Gandhiji
Verification: Mahatma Gandhi expressed this idea, indicating the pervasive nature of politics.

18. 'Veil of ignorance' was suggested by
(a) Karl Marx
(b) J. S. Mill
(c) John Rawls
(d) Laski
Answer: (c) John Rawls
Verification: The "veil of ignorance" is a concept from John Rawls’ A Theory of Justice.

19. The author of the book, The Satanic Verses is
(a) Nelson Mandela
(b) Martin Luther King
(c) Abraham Lincoln
(d) Salman Rushdie
Answer: (d) Salman Rushdie
Verification: Salman Rushdie wrote The Satanic Verses in 1988.

20. According to John Locke, right to do anything is a/an
(a) natural right
(b) social right
(c) economic right
(d) political right
Answer: (a) natural right
Verification: John Locke argued that individuals have natural rights, including life, liberty, and property.

21. Which of the following books is written by Aristotle?
(a) Republic
(b) Politics
(c) The Prince
(d) Leviathan
Answer: (b) Politics
Verification: Aristotle wrote Politics, discussing governance and political philosophy.

22. Who is considered the father of political science?
(a) Socrates
(b) Plato
(c) Aristotle
(d) Machiavelli
Answer: (c) Aristotle
Verification: Aristotle is regarded as the father of political science for his systematic study of politics.

23. Who wrote The Prince?
(a) Aristotle
(b) Machiavelli
(c) Hobbes
(d) Locke
Answer: (b) Machiavelli
Verification: Niccolò Machiavelli wrote The Prince, a guide on political power.

24. Who is the author of Two Treatises of Government?
(a) Rousseau
(b) Locke
(c) Hobbes
(d) Mill
Answer: (b) Locke
Verification: John Locke wrote Two Treatises of Government, advocating for natural rights.

25. Who introduced the concept of the 'General Will'?
(a) Rousseau
(b) Hobbes
(c) Locke
(d) Mill
Answer: (a) Rousseau
Verification: Jean-Jacques Rousseau introduced 'General Will' in The Social Contract.

26. The book Leviathan was written by
(a) Hobbes
(b) Locke
(c) Rousseau
(d) Marx
Answer: (a) Hobbes
Verification: Thomas Hobbes wrote Leviathan, outlining his views on the social contract.

27. Who said, “Man is born free, and everywhere he is in chains”?
(a) Locke
(b) Hobbes
(c) Rousseau
(d) Aristotle
Answer: (c) Rousseau
Verification: This famous line is from Rousseau’s The Social Contract.

28. The concept of ‘Separation of Powers’ was introduced by
(a) Montesquieu
(b) Rousseau
(c) Locke
(d) Hobbes
Answer: (a) Montesquieu
Verification: Montesquieu proposed the division of government into three branches.

29. Who is regarded as the father of liberalism?
(a) Hobbes
(b) Rousseau
(c) Locke
(d) Mill
Answer: (c) Locke
Verification: John Locke is known as the father of liberalism due to his ideas on freedom and government.

30. The concept of ‘Survival of the fittest’ is associated with
(a) Darwin
(b) Spencer
(c) Marx
(d) Weber
Answer: (b) Spencer
Verification: Herbert Spencer coined the phrase ‘Survival of the fittest’ in social theory.

31. Who wrote The Communist Manifesto?
(a) Lenin
(b) Marx and Engels
(c) Weber
(d) Stalin
Answer: (b) Marx and Engels
Verification: Karl Marx and Friedrich Engels wrote The Communist Manifesto in 1848.

32. The concept of ‘Class Struggle’ is associated with
(a) Marx
(b) Weber
(c) Spencer
(d) Durkheim
Answer: (a) Marx
Verification: Karl Marx introduced class struggle as a key factor in societal change.

33. Who developed the concept of ‘Bureaucracy’?
(a) Marx
(b) Weber
(c) Spencer
(d) Durkheim
Answer: (b) Weber
Verification: Max Weber analyzed bureaucracy as an organized administrative structure.

34. The book The Protestant Ethic and the Spirit of Capitalism was written by
(a) Weber
(b) Marx
(c) Engels
(d) Durkheim
Answer: (a) Weber
Verification: Max Weber’s book discusses the relationship between Protestantism and capitalism.

35. Who wrote Das Kapital?
(a) Marx
(b) Engels
(c) Lenin
(d) Stalin
Answer: (a) Marx
Verification: Karl Marx wrote Das Kapital, analyzing capitalism and economic systems.

36. The concept of ‘Social Contract’ is associated with
(a) Locke
(b) Hobbes
(c) Rousseau
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d) All of the above
Verification: All three philosophers contributed to the theory of the social contract.

37. Who said, "Power tends to corrupt, and absolute power corrupts absolutely"?
(a) Machiavelli
(b) Lord Acton
(c) Hobbes
(d) Montesquieu
Answer: (b) Lord Acton
Verification: Lord Acton made this famous remark about the dangers of absolute power.

38. The term 'Sovereignty' was first introduced by
(a) Bodin
(b) Hobbes
(c) Locke
(d) Rousseau
Answer: (a) Bodin
Verification: Jean Bodin first introduced the modern concept of sovereignty.

39. The concept of ‘Welfare State’ originated in
(a) Germany
(b) USA
(c) UK
(d) France
Answer: (a) Germany
Verification: Germany under Otto von Bismarck implemented early welfare state policies.

40. The author of the book, An Inquiry into the Nature and Causes of the Wealth of Nations is
(a) Karl Marx
(b) Adam Smith
(c) David Ricardo
(d) John Stuart Mill
Answer: (b) Adam Smith
Verification: Adam Smith wrote The Wealth of Nations, foundational to modern economics.

PART-B (Marks: 40)

41. Answer any five of the following questions: (2 × 5 = 10)  

(a) Write the meaning of Dirty Politics.

Answer: "Dirty politics" refers to unethical or dishonest practices in political activities, including manipulation, corruption, deceit, and exploitation, aimed at gaining power or personal advantage at the expense of ethical standards and public interest.

(b) Write two differences between Positive liberty and Negative liberty.

Answer:

1. Definition: Positive Liberty: The possession of the capacity to act upon one's free will, emphasizing the ability to fulfill one's own potential. Negative Liberty: Freedom from external constraints or interference, focusing on the absence of obstacles to one's actions.

2. Source of Control: Positive Liberty: Associated with self-mastery and the presence of control over one's own life. Negative Liberty: Associated with the absence of external restraints imposed by others.

(c) What do you mean by Policy of Apartheid?

Answer: The policy of apartheid was a system of institutionalized racial segregation and discrimination enforced by the South African government from 1948 to 1994, which legally sanctioned racial discrimination and limited the rights of the non-white population.

(d) Mention two Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens.

Answer:

1. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India.

2. To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood among all the people of India, transcending religious, linguistic, and regional or sectional diversities.

(e) Mention two writs of the Supreme Court of India.

Answer:

1. Habeas Corpus: A writ requiring a person under arrest to be brought before a judge or into court, ensuring protection against unlawful detention.

2. Mandamus: A writ issued to compel a public authority to perform a duty that it is obligated to perform.

(f) Mention two limitations of the Fundamental Rights of Indian citizens.

Answer:

1. Reasonable Restrictions: Fundamental Rights are subject to reasonable restrictions in the interest of sovereignty, integrity, security of the state, public order, decency, or morality.

2. State Legislation: Parliament can impose limitations on Fundamental Rights through constitutional amendments, provided they do not alter the basic structure of the Constitution.

(g) Mention two effects of the National Emergency in India.

Answer:

1. Centralization of Power: The central government assumes greater control over state functions, leading to a unitary form of governance.

2. Suspension of Fundamental Rights: Certain Fundamental Rights, including the right to move courts for enforcement of these rights, may be suspended during a National Emergency.

(h) Mention two non-federal features of India.

Answer:

1. Single Constitution: Both the Union and the states operate under a single Constitution, indicating a unitary feature.

2. Integrated Judiciary: India has a unified judicial system with the Supreme Court at the apex, rather than separate federal and state courts.

(i) Why is India called a Republic country?

Answer: India is called a Republic because the head of state, the President, is elected, either directly or indirectly, for a fixed tenure, rather than being a hereditary monarch.

(j) Write two functions of the Election Commission of India.

Answer:

1. Conducting Elections: The Election Commission is responsible for administering and supervising elections to the Parliament, State Legislatures, and the offices of the President and Vice-President.

2. Enforcing the Model Code of Conduct: It ensures that political parties and candidates adhere to the guidelines for fair conduct during elections.

42. Answer any five of the following questions: (3 × 5 = 15)  

(a) Mention three hindrances to Secularism in India.

Answer:
i) Communalism: Religious conflicts and communal riots hinder secularism by creating divisions among people.
ii) Political Exploitation: Political parties often use religion for vote-bank politics, weakening secular principles.
iii) Religious Fundamentalism: Extremist groups promote intolerance, making it difficult to maintain secular harmony.

(b) Mention three differences between Citizen and Alien.

Answer:
i) Rights: Citizens enjoy full political and civil rights, whereas aliens have limited rights.
ii) Participation: Citizens can vote and participate in governance, but aliens cannot.
iii) Legal Status: Citizens have permanent allegiance to the country, while aliens may be temporary residents or foreigners.

(c) Write three sources of the Indian Constitution.

Answer:
i) Government of India Act, 1935: Provided the basic administrative framework.
ii) British Constitution: Inspired parliamentary democracy and the rule of law.
iii) American Constitution: Borrowed the concept of fundamental rights and judicial review.

(d) Write three causes for the centralizing tendency in India.

Answer:
i) Single Constitution: A common constitution applies to both the Union and the states.
ii) Emergency Provisions: The central government assumes more power during emergencies.
iii) All-India Services: Officers like IAS and IPS serve both central and state governments, strengthening central control.

(e) Write three characteristics of local self-government of India.

Answer:
i) Decentralization: Power is distributed from the central and state governments to local bodies.
ii) People's Participation: Citizens directly take part in decision-making at the grassroots level.
iii) Autonomy: Local bodies function independently within their jurisdiction.

(f) Write three functions of a Welfare State.

Answer:
i) Social Security: Provides healthcare, pensions, and unemployment benefits.
ii) Economic Development: Ensures fair wages, employment opportunities, and economic stability.
iii) Education and Welfare: Promotes free and compulsory education and social welfare programs.

(g) Write three features of equality.

Answer:
i) Absence of Discrimination: No individual is discriminated against based on caste, religion, gender, or economic status.
ii) Equal Opportunities: Everyone has equal access to education, employment, and justice.
iii) Legal Protection: The law treats all individuals equally and protects their rights.

(h) Mention three qualities of a good citizen.

Answer:
i) Obeys Laws: Respects and follows the laws of the country.
ii) Patriotic: Loves and serves the nation selflessly.
iii) Respects Diversity: Accepts and respects different cultures, religions, and opinions.

(i) Mention three factors of Nationalism.

Answer:
i) Common Culture and History: Shared traditions, values, and past experiences unite people.
ii) Territorial Unity: A defined geographic boundary creates a sense of belonging.
iii) Political Sovereignty: Independent governance strengthens national identity.

(j) Write about any three types of Rights.

Answer:
i) Fundamental Rights: Guaranteed by the Constitution, such as the right to equality and freedom.
ii) Legal Rights: Provided by ordinary laws, such as property rights.
iii) Human Rights: Basic rights inherent to all individuals, like the right to life and dignity.  

43. Answer any three of the following questions: (5 × 3 = 15)  

(a) Discuss the different features of Indian Federalism.

Answer: Indian federalism is unique as it blends both federal and unitary features. Some key features of Indian federalism include:

i) Dual Government System: India has a dual polity consisting of the Union government and state governments, each with its own responsibilities as per the Constitution.

ii) Division of Powers: The Constitution divides powers between the Centre and the states through the Union List, State List, and Concurrent List under the Seventh Schedule.

iii) Supremacy of the Constitution: The Constitution is the supreme law of the land, and both the Union and states derive their powers from it. Any dispute regarding power-sharing is resolved by the Supreme Court.

iv) Rigid and Flexible Constitution: The amendment procedure of the Indian Constitution includes both rigid and flexible elements, allowing some provisions to be changed with state consent while others require only parliamentary approval.

v) Single Citizenship: Unlike other federal countries like the USA, India provides single citizenship, meaning that all Indians are citizens of the country regardless of the state in which they reside.

(b) Discuss the arguments in favour of national self-determination.

Answer: National self-determination is the principle that a nation has the right to determine its own political status and govern itself without external interference. The following arguments support this principle:

i) Preservation of Cultural Identity: Self-determination allows a nation to preserve and promote its unique culture, language, and traditions without outside influence.

ii) Democratic Principle: It upholds the right of people to choose their own government and political system, ensuring governance by the will of the people rather than by foreign rule.

iii) Peace and Stability: When a nation has control over its governance, it reduces the chances of internal conflicts and external intervention, leading to a more stable political environment.

iv) Economic Development: Independent nations can formulate policies that best suit their economic conditions and resources, leading to better growth and development.

v) Protection from Oppression: It prevents external powers from imposing their will on a nation, thereby safeguarding people from colonial or authoritarian rule.

(c) Discuss the differences between the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy of India.

Answer: Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are important constitutional provisions, but they differ in their nature, scope, and enforceability.

i) Nature: Fundamental Rights are justiciable, meaning that they are legally enforceable, whereas DPSPs are non-justiciable and serve as guidelines for governance.

ii) Purpose: Fundamental Rights ensure individual freedom and protect citizens against arbitrary state actions, while DPSPs aim at achieving socio-economic justice and guiding state policies.

iii) Legal Status: If a Fundamental Right is violated, a person can approach the court for remedy, but there is no legal recourse if a Directive Principle is not implemented.

iv) Binding Nature: Fundamental Rights must be followed by the government, whereas DPSPs are merely directives that the government should aim to implement when possible.

v) Scope: Fundamental Rights focus on political and civil liberties, such as freedom of speech and equality before the law, whereas DPSPs emphasize socio-economic welfare, such as the right to education, the promotion of a just economic system, and environmental protection.

(d) Write a note on the role of the Governor of a State of India.

Answer: The Governor is the constitutional head of a state in India and acts as the representative of the President. The Governor's role includes both executive and discretionary functions.

i) Executive Functions: The Governor is the nominal head of the state government and exercises executive powers on the advice of the Chief Minister and the Council of Ministers. He appoints the Chief Minister, other ministers, the Advocate General, and the State Election Commissioner.

ii) Legislative Functions: The Governor summons, prorogues, and dissolves the State Legislature. He gives assent to bills, withholds assent, or reserves them for the President’s consideration. He also nominates members to the Legislative Council, if applicable.

iii) Financial Functions: The Governor ensures that the State Budget is laid before the Legislature and gives approval to money bills. No money bill can be introduced in the state legislature without the Governor’s recommendation.

iv) Judicial Powers: The Governor has the power to grant pardons, reprieves, and remissions of punishment under Article 161 of the Constitution.

v) Discretionary Powers: In cases of constitutional crisis, such as the breakdown of state machinery, the Governor can recommend President’s Rule under Article 356. He may also exercise discretion in appointing a Chief Minister when no party has a clear majority.

Thus, the Governor plays a crucial role in ensuring the smooth functioning of the state government while also acting as a link between the state and the Centre.

(e) Discuss the theory of justice given by John Rawls.

Answer: John Rawls, in his book A Theory of Justice (1971), proposed the concept of justice as fairness, which aims at establishing a just society based on equality and fairness. His theory is based on two key principles:

i) The First Principle – Equal Liberty: Every individual must have equal basic rights and freedoms, such as freedom of speech, assembly, and political participation. These rights must be granted to all citizens without discrimination.

ii) The Second Principle – The Difference Principle: Social and economic inequalities are permitted only if they benefit the least advantaged members of society. This principle ensures that wealth and opportunities are distributed in a way that uplifts the weaker sections.

Rawls introduced the concept of the original position and veil of ignorance to establish fairness. He argued that if individuals designed a society without knowing their social status, they would create a just system that benefits everyone.

His theory emphasizes fairness over absolute equality, ensuring that resources and opportunities are fairly distributed to promote social justice. Rawls’ theory remains one of the most influential in modern political philosophy.

(f) Discuss the utility of the study of political theory.

Answer: The study of political theory is essential for understanding governance, rights, justice, and political institutions. Its importance lies in the following aspects:

i) Understanding Political Concepts: Political theory helps in analyzing key political ideas such as democracy, liberty, equality, justice, and sovereignty, enabling individuals to engage in informed discussions.

ii) Guidance for Governance: It provides theoretical foundations for political institutions and government structures, helping policymakers create laws and policies that promote justice and stability.

iii) Citizenship Awareness: Studying political theory makes individuals aware of their rights, duties, and responsibilities in a democratic system, encouraging active participation in politics.

iv) Promoting Critical Thinking: Political theory fosters analytical skills, allowing individuals to critically examine different ideologies, governance models, and social issues.

v) Ensuring Social Justice: By understanding different theories of justice, equality, and human rights, political theory contributes to the creation of fair and inclusive societies.

Thus, political theory is not just an academic discipline but a practical guide for creating an informed and responsible citizenry that upholds democratic values.

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