Preparing for the SEBA Class 10 HSLC Examination 2025 can feel quite challenging, especially when it comes to Social Science. With four different sections – History, Geography, Political Science, and Economics – the subject often feels vast and detailed. To make your preparation easier, we have prepared the SEBA Class 10 Social Science Solved Question Paper 2025 in a simple and structured format.
This solved paper will give you a clear idea of the question pattern, important topics, and the step-by-step solutions expected in the HSLC exam under the Assam Board.
ASSAM HSLC SEBA Class 10 Social Science Solved Question Paper 2025
Subject Code: C4
YEAR: 2025
Subject: Social Science
Full Marks: 90
Pass Marks: 27
The figures in the margin indicate full marks for the questions.
SECTION—A
Choose the correct answer for the following questions (Q. No. 1 to Q. No. 45):
1. Which of the following statements are true about the Partition of Bengal in 1905?
(i) It resulted in the second important political upheaval in India after the 1857 Revolt.
(ii) It was executed to suppress the growing national consciousness in Bengal.
(iii) Shillong was made the capital of Eastern Bengal and Assam.
(iv) It led to the Swadeshi Movement.
(a) (i), (ii), (iv)
(b) (i), (iii), (iv)
(c) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
2. Which of the following best explains why Gopal Krishna Gokhale returned his 'Knighthood' title to the British Government?
(a) He felt the British Government was failing to provide adequate governance.
(b) He was unhappy with Britain’s Bengal partition policy.
(c) He sought to retire from public life and focus on personal matters.
(d) None of the above.
3. Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): The Swadeshi Movement in India aimed to promote indigenous goods and reduce dependency on British products.
Reason (R): The Swadeshi Movement primarily aimed to oppose British taxation and government loans.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
4. Who among the following edited a magazine Vande Mataram during the Swadeshi Movement in India?
(a) Aurobindo Ghosh
(b) Krishna Kumar Mitra
(c) Surendranath Banerjee
(d) Kumudini Mishra
5. Consider the following statements about the Non-Cooperation Movement. Which of the following options are correct?
(i) Salt laws were challenged.
(ii) Students left government schools.
(iii) There was unity between Hindus and Muslims.
(iv) Women did not participate.
(a) (i) and (iv)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (ii)
(d) (ii) and (iii)
6. Which of the following were provisions of the Indian Independence Act, 1947?
(i) India and Pakistan were to become independent on August 15, 1947.
(ii) Each dominion was to have a Prime Minister appointed by the king.
(iii) Two dominions of India and Pakistan were established, and their Constituent Assemblies were to decide whether to remain within the British Commonwealth of Nations or not.
(iv) The Legislatures of both dominions were restricted to making laws only under the supervision of the British Parliament.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iv)
7. Arrange the following historical events in the sequence they occurred from old to new:
(i) August Revolution
(ii) Direct Action Day
(iii) Simon Commission
(iv) Demand for complete independence
(a) (iii) → (iv) → (ii) → (i)
(b) (iii) → (ii) → (iv) → (i)
(c) (i) → (ii) → (iii) → (iv)
(d) (iv) → (iii) → (ii) → (i)
8. Choose the correct option based on the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R):
Assertion (A): In the last decades of the 19th century, Assam witnessed a series of peasant revolts.
Reason (R): The peasants organized themselves through public meetings.
(a) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
9. How did the British Government’s treatment of the leaders of the revolt of Manipur affect subsequent resistance movements in the region?
(a) It encouraged further resistance by demonstrating that British authority could be contested.
(b) It led to a decline in local resistance due to increased repression.
(c) It created a sense of cooperation between British authorities and local leaders.
(d) It did not have any significant impact on future resistance movements.
10. According to Heramba Kanta Borpujari, several Brahmin Purohits of Upper Assam joined the 1857 Revolt. Which was the correct reason for it?
(a) They supported the cause of the Ahom aristocracy.
(b) They lost their livelihood after the British annexed Assam.
(c) The British took away their excess Lakheraj (revenue-free) lands.
(d) They were inspired by nationalist sentiments.
11. The consumption of Abkari opium in Assam fell from 1615 maunds in 1920-21 to 993 maunds in 1922-23. Which of the following statements correctly explains the fall in consumption of opium?
(a) The British Government, recognizing the ill effects of opium consumption, restricted its sale.
(b) The public understood the harmful effects of opium consumption.
(c) The demand for opium among the public decreased.
(d) A vigorous anti-opium campaign was led by Congress workers.
12. From the following options, choose the programme and the movement led by Mahatma Gandhi, in which Leeladhar Baruah from Assam joined.
(a) Dandi March, Non-Cooperation Movement
(b) Dandi March, Civil Disobedience Movement
(c) Collection of funds through Tilak Swarajya Fund, Non-Cooperation Movement
(d) None of the above
13. Match the following and choose the correct answer:
(i) Ambikagiri Raychoudhury
(ii) Padmanath Gohain Baruah
(iii) Lakshminath Bezbarua
(iv) Anandaram Dhekial Phukan
(a) Gyan Pradayini Sabha
(b) Bandini Bharat
(c) Ahom Sabha
(d) Been Boragi
Options:
(a) (i)-(b), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(a)
(b) (i)-(c), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(d)
(c) (i)-(d), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(c)
(d) (i)-(a), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(c), (iv)-(b)
14. Which of the following is true about the Gandhara style?
(a) The central theme was Hindu deities.
(b) It developed mainly in western Uttar Pradesh.
(c) It was influenced by the Mathura style only.
(d) It is associated with the Greco-Roman style.
15. How does the cultural heritage of India reflect its historical diversity?
(a) Through uniform political history
(b) Through various languages, festivals, and arts representing different regions
(c) Through a unified national language
(d) Through a single style of architecture
16. Match the following and choose the correct answer:
(i) Kathakali
(ii) Bharatnatyam
(iii) Kathak
(iv) Kuchipudi
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Kerala
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Northern India
Options:
(a) (i)-(b), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(a)
(b) (i)-(c), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(d)
(c) (i)-(d), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(c)
(d) (i)-(a), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(b)
17. Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): During the Indus Valley Civilization, diverse ways of worshipping were observed, and various deities were worshipped by the people.
Reason (R): The ancient religious tradition of India accepted the principle of tolerance, co-existence, and assimilation among new traditions or religions.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, (R) is true.
18. Choose the correct set of statements about the IUCN from the options given below:
(i) IUCN was formed in 1948.
(ii) The full form of IUCN is Indian Union for Conservation of Nature.
(iii) WWF and World Conservation Monitoring Centre were established with the initiative of IUCN.
(iv) George Chisholm was the founder Director-General of IUCN.
(a) (i), (ii), (iii)
(b) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(c) (i), (iv)
(d) (i), (iii)
19. Which among the following options is correct for the quaternary sector of the economy?
(a) Community - based tourism
(b) Innovative research on modern eco-friendly technology.
(c) Sales executive of a shopping mall
(d) Green bus service for public transportation
20. Two statements are given below, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Choose the correct answer based on these statements:
Assertion (A): With the change in society, simultaneous changes occur in the concept of resource, and consequent change in resource collection and use.
Reason (R): With the expansion of human knowledge and development of science and technology, many neutral stuff and resistances are transformed into resources.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(b) (A) is correct, (R) is incorrect.
(c) (A) is incorrect, (R) is correct.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
21. Which of the following are correct regarding the conservation of resources?
(i) Economic use of resources considering the long-lasting developmental process
(ii) More and more use of non-renewable resources instead of renewable resources
(iii) Possible optimum utilization of resources without any destruction and misuse
(iv) Preservation of resources for the future without any use
(a) (i), (iv)
(b) (i), (ii)
(c) (ii), (iv)
(d) (i), (iii)
22. Two statements are given below, one as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Based on these statements, choose the most appropriate answer:
Assertion (A): Economic Geography studies human activities associated with production, distribution, consumption, and exchange of resources in spatial and temporal contexts.
Reason (R): Humans’ way of life and their economic activities are different in terms of spatio-temporal variations.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, (R) is true.
23. Which of the following sources of energy do/does not produce carbon dioxide?
(i) Wind energy
(ii) Geothermal energy
(iii) Hydroelectric energy
(iv) Fossil fuel
(a) (i)
(b) (i), (ii), (iii)
(c) (i), (iv)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
24. In the following question, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Considering these statements, choose the correct answer:
Assertion (A): Acid rain occurs when there is a maximum concentration of Sulphur dioxide and Nitrogen dioxide in the atmosphere.
Reason (R): Such rains destroy forests and pollute water in the wetlands.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) (A) is true, (R) is false.
(c) (A) is false, (R) is true.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
25. What will be the adverse effect of the melting of glaciers in high-altitude mountains and polar regions?
(i) Rise of sea level
(ii) Large extent of coastal areas will be submerged
(iii) Issues of water scarcity will be resolved
(iv) Biodiversity will be protected
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(b) (i), (iii)
(c) (ii), (iii)
(d) (i), (ii)
26. Consider the statements (i) and (ii) about the pollution of urban centres located on the banks of rivers, and choose the correct answer:
(i) Urban garbage and industrial waste pollute the water of the rivers flowing through or by the side of urban centres.
(ii) 55% of the total river length in the United States of America is polluted by chemical fertilizers and agricultural pollutants.
(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true.
(b) Both (i) and (ii) are false.
(c) (i) is true, (ii) is false.
(d) (i) is false, (ii) is true.
27. Consider the following statements in terms of regional environmental problems and choose the correct answer:
(i) Cities like Delhi, Bengaluru, Guwahati, Pune, etc., are facing a shortage of underground water.
(ii) River bank soil erosion is a serious environmental problem in states like West Bengal and Assam.
(a) (i) is true, (ii) is false.
(b) (i) is false, (ii) is true.
(c) Both (i) and (ii) are true.
(d) Both (i) and (ii) are false.
28. Which among the following statements are correct about the northern hemisphere?
(i) 67% of the land is confined in this region.
(ii) 90% of the world’s population lives in this region.
(iii) 57% of land is confined in this region.
(iv) 40% of the world’s population lives in this region.
(a) (i), (ii)
(b) (i), (iv)
(c) (ii), (iii)
(d) (iii), (iv)
29. Identify the ocean from the characteristics mentioned below:
(i) This ocean covers about one-third of the earth’s surface area.
(ii) The average depth of this ocean is about 5000 metres.
(iii) The oceanic trenches like the deepest Mariana trench, Aleutian, Kurile, Philippine, Tonga, Peru-Chile, etc., are important.
(a) Indian Ocean
(b) Pacific Ocean
(c) Atlantic Ocean
(d) Arctic Ocean
30. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(a) South America: Sahara Desert
(b) Atlantic Ocean: Mariana Trench
(c) Asia: Bering Strait
(d) North America: Death Valley
31. Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): Except the narrow coastal plains, the major part of the African continent is a large plateau; no high mountain range is there in the continent.
Reason (R): The Kilimanjaro peak located in the east is the highest place of the African continent.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) (A) is true, (R) is false.
(c) (A) is false, (R) is true.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
32. Arrange the following geographical divisions of the oceanic floor in the sequence they occur in increasing depth and find out the correct option:
(a) Continental Shelf
(b) Continental Slope
(c) Oceanic Ridge
(d) Deep Sea Plain
(e) Deep Sea Trench
(f) Oceanic Canyon
Options:
(a) (a) → (b) → (c) → (d) → (e) → (f)
(b) (a) → (c) → (b) → (d) → (f) → (e)
(c) (a) → (b) → (d) → (c) → (f) → (e)
(d) (a) → (b) → (c) → (f) → (d) → (e)
33. Arrange the chronological flow of migration of the following groups of people to Assam:
(i) Mongoloid
(ii) Austric
(iii) Aryan
(iv) Ahom
Options:
(a) (ii) → (i) → (iii) → (iv)
(b) (i) → (ii) → (iii) → (iv)
(c) (iii) → (ii) → (i) → (iv)
(d) (iv) → (iii) → (ii) → (i)
34. During which of the following decades did the State of Assam witness a lower growth rate of population as compared to India?
(a) 1901-1911
(b) 1981-1991
(c) 1991-2001
(d) 1941-1951
35. Why is a democratic government regarded as a better choice over other forms of government?
(i) It promotes equality among citizens.
(ii) It ensures economic progress.
(iii) It provides a method of resolving conflict.
(a) (i), (ii)
(b) (i), (iii)
(c) (ii), (iii)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii)
36. Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): To grasp the inner spirit of the Constitution, one should go through the Preamble of the Constitution.
Reason (R): Every word in the Preamble embodies the ideals, philosophy, and aims of the Constitution.
(a) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
37. Who can be the Chairman of the National Human Rights Commission?
(a) Retired Chief Justice of a High Court
(b) Retired Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(c) A retired judge of a High Court
(d) A retired judge of the Supreme Court
38. Which of the following organs are parts of the United Nations?
(i) Secretariat
(ii) United Nations Human Rights Commission
(iii) General Assembly
(iv) International Monetary Fund
(a) (i), (ii)
(b) (iii), (iv)
(c) (i), (iv)
(d) (i), (iii)
39. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the General Assembly of the United Nations?
(i) It is the biggest organ of the UNO.
(ii) It has ten temporary and five permanent members.
(iii) Its main function is to settle the cases filed by the affected member States.
(a) Only (i) is true.
(b) (i) and (ii) are true.
(c) (ii) and (iii) are true.
(d) (i) and (iii) are true.
40. Identify the incorrect statements stated below relating to cheque money:
(i) As a medium of exchange, it has universal acceptability.
(ii) Refusal to accept cheque money will mean violation of the law of the land.
(iii) Cheque money is circulated through economic offences.
(iv) A cheque is a claim against money and can be encashed at the counter of a bank.
(v) Only the Central Bank has the right to print and circulate cheque money.
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (v)
(b) (i), (ii), (iv), (v)
(c) (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)
(d) (i), (iii), (iv), (v)
41. Romen opens an account in Allahabad Bank with a sum of Rupees twenty thousand (₹20,000). After three months of opening, he again deposited ₹3,000 in his account. At the end of the financial year, the bank credits a sum of ₹550 as interest. Considering the above situation, choose the type of bank account Romen has:
(a) Current Deposit Account
(b) Fixed Deposit Account
(c) Recurring Deposit Account
(d) Savings Deposit Account
42. In the following question, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): Money is the most liquid asset.
Reason (R): Money can be instantly and directly transformed into goods and services as per the holder’s wish.
(a) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
43. Consider the statements (i) and (ii) about economic growth and development and choose the correct answer:
(i) Economic development is a qualitative concept, but economic growth is a quantitative concept.
(ii) Economic development is a narrow concept, whereas economic growth is a broader concept.
(a) (i) is true, (ii) is true.
(b) (i) is true, (ii) is false.
(c) (i) is false, (ii) is true.
(d) (i) is false, (ii) is false.
44. The Chairman of NITI Ayog?
(a) The President
(b) The Union Finance Minister
(c) The Prime Minister
(d) The Vice President
45. Match the following and find out the correct answer:
(i) Democratic Planning
(ii) Economic Planning
(iii) Grassroot Planning
(a) Involves administration in planning at the lowest level
(b) People participate at different stages of plan-making
(c) To attain a set of well-defined developmental objectives
Options:
(a) (i)-(b), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(a)
(b) (i)-(c), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(b)
(c) (i)-(a), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(c)
(d) (i)-(b), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(c)
SECTION—B
46. Compare the methods of protest used in the Swadeshi Movement with those employed in the earlier Indian Rebellion of 1857.
Answer: The methods of protest in the Swadeshi Movement were far less violent compared to those in the Revolt of 1857. The Swadeshi Movement began with peaceful measures, such as submitting a petition to the Secretary of State for India signed by around 70,000 Indians. In contrast, the Revolt of 1857 started with violent action, where Indian sepoys expressed their defiance by killing a British commander.
47. Look at the picture below and answer the question that follows: (2+1=3)
Identify any two architectural features of the Rang Ghar. Why was this architecture built during the Ahom period?
Answer: Two architectural features of Rang Ghar are:
1. It is a two-storied building.
2. Its roof is designed in the shape of an inverted boat.
Rang Ghar was built by the Ahom rulers as a royal pavilion to witness Bihu celebrations and other cultural events held in the courtyard.
48. Evaluate the role of General Dyer in the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre and the subsequent reactions to his actions.
Ans : On 13th April, a public meeting was held in Jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar. General Dyer, who was in command of troops took no steps to prevent it from being held. Under the order of General Dyer, British troops mercilessly fired on the unarmed and defenseless people in the meeting. Consequently hundreds of lives were lost and many more were wounded. Martial laws was proclaimed in Punjab. It was marked by indiscriminate arrests, confiscation of property, whipping etc. The government disturbances. General Dyer was removed from his services by British government in London, but was from guilt. Against the massacre Rabindranath Tagore gave his knighthood. And this massacre was one of the reason that lead to Non-cooperation movement.
49. Observe the given statistical data on the collection of revenue (in terms of rupees) by the British Government and answer the questions that follow :
(A) Compare the data between Kamrup and Darrang.
Ans : The revenue collection of Kamrup during 1823-1833 was about 1,10,181 which increased to near about double in 1842-1843.
Whereas the revenue collection of Darrang was 41,506 which increased thrice in the year 1842-1843.
But in the year 1852-1853 both the states had a normal collection of revenue.
(B) What was the impact of the change on the peasants of Kamrup and Darrang?
Ans : Since the revenue was raised during 1842-1843, so the peasants had to face much difficulty. Some impact of this change of collection of revenue are -
Many peasants were forced into debt or to sale their land to pay the revenue.
The harsh conditions faced by the peasants led to peasants revolts.
50. Chandra Kumar Agarwala, the editor of 'Jonaki', in his inaugural issue made it clear that the politics of the rulers was beyond the purview of 'Jonaki'.
a) Who is being referred to as 'rulers' in the statement?
Ans : In the given statement 'rulers' are being referred to the Britishers.
b) Which association published Jonaki?
Ans : Asomiya Bhasa Unnati Sadhini Sabha published Jonaki.
c) If politics was out of the purview of Jonaki, then how did it contribute to the growth of nationalistic consciousness? Provide at least three examples.
Ans : Chandrakumar Agarwala made it clear that politics was out of the purview of Jonaki.
It contributed towards the growth of nationalistic consciousness through the following ways -
i) Articles and poems published in Jonaki reflected the nationalistic views of the authors.
ii) Kanakal Barua and Kamalakanta Bhattacharya regularly wrote about the economic backwardness of Assam and made urgent appeal to ensure economic progress of Assam.
iii) Lakshminath Bezbaruah's 'Mor Desh', 'Assam Sangeet', 'Been Borghi' etc. and writings of Ambikagiri Raichoudhury popularised nationalistic sentiments.
51. What are called Ubiquitous Resource and Localised Resource? Give examples of each of these resources.
Ans :
Resources which are available everywhere on Earth are called Ubiquitous resources. Example - Air, Water, Sunlight
Resources which are found only in some specific locations are called localised resources. Example - Coal, Petroleum
52. Read the following news headline of The Assam Tribune [29 December, 2022] and answer the question that follows:
“Guwahati named among top 5 slowest cities in terms of average vehicle speed.”
Ans :
i) Vehicles moving slowly would burn more fuel and lead to emission of air like carbon dioxide and nitrogen oxides.
ii) Slow moving vehicles often create more noise which create noise pollution.
iii) Slow speed contributes to traffic congestion, which can result in longer travel times and increased fuel consumption. This not only affects the environment but also the quality of life for residents.
53. Does Assam have prospect for the development of water transport? Give four arguments in support of your opinion.
Ans: Yes, Assam has prospects for the development of water transport. The two major rivers of Assam, Borak and Brahmaputra have the potential to deal in water transport.
Four arguments in support to my opinion are-
i) There are two agencies, Central Inland Waterways Cooperation and Directorate of Inland Water Cooperation which are constantly working for the development of water resources in Assam.
ii) The Brahmaputra river has a long course of 891 km in Assam which is the second national waterway. Since Brahmaputra is connected to the Bay of Bengal, international trade would be possible through it.
iii) There are 96 ferry services operating on the river Borak, Brahmaputra and its tributaries under the government of Inland Water Transport. Proper utilization of these would bring a great revolution in water transport of Assam.
iv) Since water transport is cheaper than any other transport system, it has a very strong prospect in Assam.
54. Based on the features given in the following table, compare the Pacific ocean and the Atlantic ocean. (a) Land area (b) Average depth (c) Major Islands (d) Major seas. Write your responses in it :
55. Draw a sketch map of Assam and locate therein any two of the following with names :
Or
Briefly describe the problems of the tourism industry of Assam.
Ans: The tourism industry of Assam faces several problems such as poor infrastructure and connectivity, lack of proper promotion and marketing, inadequate accommodation facilities, seasonal dependence, political instability, occasional floods and natural calamities, and issues of law and order. These challenges restrict the growth of tourism despite the state’s rich natural beauty and cultural heritage.
56. How are the permanent members different from the non-permanent members in the UN Security Council? 2
Answer: Permanent members have the power of veto and always remain in the Council. Non-permanent members are elected for 2 years and do not have veto power.
57. Read the description below and answer the question that follows : Suppose, the government has set up a hospital in a village called Dambuk. The hospital provides free treatment to the Hindus. People of other religions have to bear the cost of treatment themselves. Can the government take such measures in a country like India? Give your opinion. 3
Answer: No, the government cannot take such measures in India. India is a secular country where all religions are treated equally. The Constitution does not allow the government to discriminate on the basis of religion.
58. Suppose you are at a hardware store to purchase some goods and willing to pay your bill amount by cheque. But the store owner is refusing to accept the payment by cheque and asks you to pay by cash. You do not have cash with you. What do you think why the store owner is refusing to accept the cheque? Suggest any alternative way of purchasing your goods that day. 1+1=2
Answer: The store owner may refuse to accept the cheque because it takes time to clear and there is a chance it may bounce.
Alternative way: I can pay by digital payment methods like UPI, debit card, or net banking.
59. As per a 2022 report published by the World Bank, the life expectancy in some countries is mentioned below :
Why do you think the life expectancy in the countries like Japan, Australia, Norway, etc., is higher compared to that of the countries like India, Pakistan, Angola, etc.? 2
Answer: Life expectancy is higher in countries like Japan, Australia, and Norway because they have better healthcare, good nutrition, higher living standards, and less poverty. In countries like India, Pakistan, and Angola, poverty, poor healthcare, and lack of facilities lower life expectancy.
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