Whether you're checking your expected score or preparing for the next B.Ed. entrance examination, this question paper will be a valuable study resource.
Dibrugarh University B.Ed. CET 2026 Overview
DU B.Ed. CET JULY 2026 – MCQs
1. A train 120 m long passes a pole in 6 seconds. What is the speed of the train in km/h?
(A) 60
(B) 72
(C) 80
(D) 54
2. The average of 5 numbers is 28. If one number is excluded, the average becomes 25. The excluded number is
(A) 35
(B) 38
(C) 40
(D) 42
3. A can do a piece of work in 12 days and B can do the same in 15 days. They work together for 5 days, then A leaves. How many more days will B take to finish the remaining work?
(A) 3.25
(B) 3.75
(C) 4.5
(D) 5
4. A shopkeeper offers a discount of 10% on the market price of an item and still gains 20%. If the market price is ₹600, then the cost price is
(A) ₹450
(B) ₹480
(C) ₹500
(D) ₹520
5. How many terms are there in 2, 4, 8, 16, …, 4096?
(A) 9
(B) 10
(C) 11
(D) 12
6. The digit in the unit place of the square of the least odd composite number is
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 3
(D) 9
7. The smallest number to be added to 1000 so that the sum is exactly divisible by 35 is
(A) 10
(B) 35
(C) 20
(D) 50
8. A number is increased by 25% and then decreased by 20%. The net change is
(A) No change
(B) 5% increase
(C) 10% increase
(D) 1% decrease
9. In a triangle ABC, angle A is greater than angle B by 10° and angle B is greater than angle C by 10°. The value of angle B is
(A) 90°
(B) 80°
(C) 70°
(D) 60°
10. 40% of a number is equal to 4/5th of another number. The ratio between the numbers is
(A) 8 : 5
(B) 2 : 1
(C) 1 : 2
(D) None of the above
11. Complete the following series:
1, 252, 250, 62, 20, 7, ?
(A) 9
(B) 11
(C) 13
(D) 15
12. In a north-facing row of NCC cadets, Simi is 9th from the left end and Eliana is 12th from the right end. There are 5 cadets between Simi and Tajmim who is equidistant to Eliana. Find how many cadets are there in the row.
(A) 31
(B) 32
(C) 33
(D) 34
13. In a certain code language, "hunger and poverty remain" is coded as "ner gup jil mub", "people count poverty records" is coded as "abc gup xyz def", "count remain unchanged records" is coded as "buf ner fed xyz", "people and poverty rate" is coded as "abc mub for gup". Find the code for "rate and records".
(A) for jil mub
(B) ner mub for
(C) for mub def
(D) ner for def
14. Shimla is colder than only Ooty. Mussoorie is colder than Mount Abu but not as cold as Nainital. Darjeeling is colder than Shimla but not the coldest. Which among the following is the second coldest?
(A) Nainital
(B) Darjeeling
(C) Mussoorie
(D) Can't be determined
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
17. A cube has all its faces painted RED and is then cut into 64 smaller equal cubes. How many small cubes will have exactly two faces painted?
(A) 12
(B) 24
(C) 32
(D) 48
18. Find the odd one out from the given jumbled words:
LNUAIMIU, ELEST, OPERPC, NMKOYE, INCKLE
(A) NMKOYE
(B) OPERPC
(C) INCKLE
(D) ELEST
19. P and Q are brothers. R and S are sisters. The son of P is brother of S. Q is related to R as
(A) father
(B) brother
(C) son
(D) uncle
20. A man walks 10 m towards east, then turns left and walks 5 m. Then turns left again and walks 10 m. How far and in which direction is he now from the starting point?
(A) 5 m north
(B) 5 m south
(C) 10 m north
(D) 10 m south
21. Following are a few statements on teaching-learning process:
I. When students fail in a test, it is the teacher who fails.
II. Every teaching must aim at ensuring learning.
III. There can be teaching without learning taking place.
IV. There can be no learning without teaching.
V. A teacher also learns while teaching.
VI. Real learning implies rote learning.
Which of the above statements are correct propositions in respect of teaching-learning process?
(A) II, III, IV and V
(B) I, II, IV and V
(C) III, IV, V and VI
(D) I, II, III and V
22. Assertion (a): All teaching should aim at ensuring learning.
Reason (r): All learning results from teaching.
Based on the above statements, which of the following options is correct?
(A) Both (a) and (r) are true and (r) is the correct explanation of (a).
(B) Both (a) and (r) are true, but (r) is not the correct explanation of (a).
(C) (a) is true, but (r) is false.
(D) (a) is false, but (r) is true.
23. If a teacher is not able to answer a question asked by a student, he/she should
(A) ask the student to sit down and allow others to ask questions.
(B) give a wrong answer confidently.
(C) say that he/she will find out and answer the next day.
(D) ignore the student and continue teaching.
24. To handle students with different learning speeds, a teacher should
(A) use varied teaching strategies to reach every learner.
(B) teach at a very slow pace to help everyone learn.
(C) focus only on the slow learners.
(D) ignore the slow learners and focus on the average students.
25. Which of the following is not a characteristic of effective teaching?
(A) Dynamic interaction
(B) Static and unchanging methodology
(C) Aiming for personality development
(D) Use of various instructional strategies
26. During a classroom debate, a teacher intentionally presents contradictory viewpoints on a social issue. The primary teaching objective is to
(A) confuse students to test intelligence.
(B) promote critical thinking and analytical reasoning.
(C) increase syllabus coverage quickly.
(D) encourage competition among learners.
27. When students from diverse cultural backgrounds participate equally in classroom interaction, the teacher is primarily promoting
(A) cultural dominance
(B) social exclusion
(C) democratic learning environment
(D) authoritarian discipline
28. A teacher integrates real-life community problems into classroom instruction to develop socially responsible learners. This approach primarily emphasizes
(A) rote learning
(B) experiential and contextual learning
(C) mechanical practice
(D) isolated theoretical instruction
29. When students are not doing the tasks during group activities, then which of the following a teacher should do?
(A) Provide clear roles and instructions to each member.
(B) Remind the students about their activities.
(C) Allow students to discuss among themselves.
(D) Discontinue the group activities.
30. Which of the following should be the main goal of classroom management?
(A) To maintain proper discipline.
(B) To assign engaging tasks to students.
(C) To use appropriate teaching methods.
(D) To maintain order and maximize learning.
31. What figure of speech is exemplified in the following philosophical observation?
"He who saves a life kills a shadow; he who destroys a life creates a void."
(A) Antithesis
(B) Apostrophe
(C) Hyperbole
(D) Euphemism
32. Identify the main verb in the following complex sentence:
"The policy analyst who restructured the trade frameworks realized too late that the tariffs would backfire."
(A) trade
(B) would backfire
(C) realized
(D) restructured
33. "The ancient fortress walls remained impregnable despite weeks of constant bombardment by the invading forces."
Contextually, impregnable is synonymous with
(A) vulnerable
(B) invulnerable
(C) porous
(D) dilapidated
34. Choose the option that correctly fills the blank:
"She insisted that he ______ the report before leaving."
(A) submit
(B) submits
(C) submitted
(D) would submit
35. Select the sentence in which the participle is used correctly.
(A) Walking down the lane, the trees swayed.
(B) Exhausted by the journey, the bed felt welcome.
(C) Having finished the exam, she left the hall quietly.
(D) Running to catch the bus, the bag fell off her shoulder.
36. Identify the correctly punctuated sentence.
(A) Its a pity that the team lost it's momentum.
(B) It's a pity that the team lost its momentum.
(C) Its a pity that the team lost its momentum.
(D) It's a pity that the team lost it's momentum.
37. Choose the word closest in meaning to the underlined word.
"The professor's laconic style often left students wanting more explanation."
(A) Verbose
(B) Terse
(C) Eloquent
(D) Pedantic
38. Select the ANTONYM of the word "Perfidious".
(A) Treacherous
(B) Audacious
(C) Faithful
(D) Vacuous
39. Select the option that explains the idiom "to burn the candle at both ends".
(A) To be very cautious about wasting resources.
(B) To illuminate a room completely.
(C) To approach a problem from two directions.
(D) To overwork oneself by being active early and late.
40. Identify the word that correctly completes both sentences:
"She decided to ______ the terms of the contract."
"The bank refused the cheque."
(A) forge
(B) draft
(C) honour
(D) waive
41. Choose the correctly spelt word.
(A) accomodate
(B) accommodate
(C) acommodate
(D) accommoddate
42. Spot the error in:
"Neither of the boys have done his homework."
(A) Neither of
(B) the boys
(C) have done
(D) his homework
43. What does the author identify as the primary limitation of dominant historiographical accounts of the Indian Knowledge Systems?
(A) Overemphasis on vernacular traditions
(B) The systematic marginalization of women as producers and custodians of knowledge
(C) A failure to distinguish between philosophy and practical knowledge traditions
(D) The neglect of regional diversity
44. How were women's knowledge doubly marginalized during the era of colonialism?
(A) Patriarchal monopoly over social structures and preference of scriptural over lived knowledge
(B) Caste hierarchy and Brahminical authority over Sanskrit
(C) Colonial education policy and missionary influence
(D) Nineteenth-century reform movements and caste system
45. What does the author suggest to be the challenge for contemporary Indian academia?
(A) To challenge the principles of traditional knowledge systems
(B) To initiate changes in the colonial knowledge frameworks
(C) To interrogate the missionary intervention in the traditional knowledge practices
(D) To integrate women's ways of knowing and their philosophical perspectives into mainstream academia and interrogate the structural conditions of caste, gender and colonial legacy
46. In 2019, which popular singer was awarded the Bharat Ratna Award?
(A) Lata Mangeshkar
(B) Asha Bhosle
(C) Bhupen Hazarika
(D) Manna Dey
47. PM-SURAJ portal was launched by which Ministry?
(A) Ministry of Rural Development
(B) Ministry of Finance
(C) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
(D) Ministry of Law and Justice
48. The green planet in the solar system is
(A) Mars
(B) Venus
(C) Uranus
(D) Earth
49. The father of Indian Missile Technology is
(A) Dr. Homi J. Bhabha
(B) Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
(C) Dr. U. R. Rao
(D) Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
50. The Kyoto Protocol is an international treaty associated with which environmental issue(s)?
(A) Biodiversity loss
(B) Climate change and Greenhouse gases
(C) Ozone layer depletion
(D) Water pollution
51. Who is considered the father of Indian Space Program?
(A) Dr. U. R. Rao
(B) Dr. Homi J. Bhabha
(C) Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
(D) Dr. G. Madhavan Nair
52. As of today, which of the following is the highest civilian award conferred by the Government of Assam?
(A) Assam Baibhav
(B) Assam Ratna
(C) Assam Gaurav
(D) Assam Saurav
53. The "Green Revolution" in India was primarily focused on increasing the production of which crops?
(A) Tea and Coffee
(B) Rice and Wheat
(C) Pulses and Oilseeds
(D) Cotton and Jute
54. The "Blue Economy" primarily refers to
(A) Space technology
(B) Textile industry
(C) River valley projects
(D) Marine resources and ocean economy
55. Assertion (a): Artificial Intelligence (AI) can stimulate human decision-making processes.
Reason (r): AI systems depend entirely on biological neurons for operation.
Based on the above statements, which option is correct?
(A) Both (a) and (r) are true and (r) explains (a).
(B) Both (a) and (r) are true, but (r) does not explain (a).
(C) (a) is true, but (r) is false.
(D) (a) is false, but (r) is true.
56. International Day of Education is observed every year on which date?
(A) January 24
(B) January 25
(C) January 26
(D) January 27
57. What is the theme of National Voters' Day, 2026?
(A) Every Vote Counts
(B) My India, My Vote
(C) Democracy in Action
(D) Power of the People
58. Which State has been declared the country's first paperless judiciary State?
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Manipur
(C) Sikkim
(D) Haryana
59. What was the central theme of National Sports Day, 2025?
(A) Fit India for All
(B) Healthy India, Happy India
(C) Ek Ghanta, Khel ke Maidan Main
(D) Sports for Life
60. Who received the Assam Baibhav, 2024?
(A) Dr. Purabi Saikia
(B) Dipen Baruah
(C) Lt. Gen. Rana Pratap Kalita (Retd.)
(D) Uma Chetry
61. Which among the following tribal councils of Assam is a statutory autonomous council and not a Sixth Schedule Council?
(A) Bodoland Territorial Council
(B) Karbi Anglong Autonomous Council
(C) Dima Hasao Autonomous District Council
(D) Sonowal Kachari Autonomous Council
62. Who was the first Nobel Prize winner of Asia?
(A) Hideki Yukawa (Japan)
(B) Chandrasekhara Venkata Raman (India)
(C) Rabindranath Tagore (India)
(D) Susumu Tonegawa (Japan)
63. In which year was the Reserve Bank of India established?
(A) 1935
(B) 1945
(C) 1947
(D) 1937
64. Which is the latest enacted amendment to the Constitution of India?
(A) 104th
(B) 105th
(C) 106th
(D) 107th
65. Consider the following statements regarding districts and headquarters of Assam:
Haflong is the headquarters of Dima Hasao district.
Diphu is the headquarters of West Karbi Anglong district.
Kajalgaon is the headquarters of Chirang district.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) All of these
66. In July 2024, which historical site from Assam was officially inscribed as India's 43rd UNESCO World Heritage Site (and the first cultural site from Northeast India)?
(A) Kareng Ghar
(B) Charaideo Maidams
(C) Talatal Ghar
(D) Rang Ghar
67. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I (Event)
(a) Signing of the Assam Accord
(b) Shift of Assam's capital from Shillong to Dispur
(c) Treaty of Yandabo
(d) Establishment of Gauhati High Court
List-II (Year)
(1) 1826
(2) 1948
(3) 1973
(4) 1985
Options:
(A) (a)-(4), (b)-(1), (c)-(3), (d)-(2)
(B) (a)-(4), (b)-(3), (c)-(1), (d)-(2)
(C) (a)-(3), (b)-(4), (c)-(1), (d)-(2)
(D) (a)-(4), (b)-(3), (c)-(2), (d)-(1)
68. Which official historical document warned that unchecked migration from East Bengal could permanently change the culture and demographics of Assam's Brahmaputra Valley?
(A) The 1911 Census Report
(B) The 1951 Census Report of India
(C) The 1931 Census Report: Assam
(D) The 1983 Legislative Assembly Report
69. The Inner Line Permit (ILP) system in Northeast India traces its origin to which colonial-era legislation enacted by the British Administration?
(A) The Government of India Act, 1935
(B) The Scheduled Districts Act, 1874
(C) The Indian Councils Act, 1909
(D) The Bengal Eastern Frontier Regulation, 1873
70. Which among the following districts of Assam shares boundary with both Bhutan and West Bengal?
(A) Kokrajhar
(B) Chirang
(C) Dhubri
(D) Baksa
-0000-
Dibrugarh University B.Ed. CET 2026 Answer Key
Subject-wise Distribution
The paper included questions from various sections, including:
General Mathematics
Logical Reasoning
Teaching Aptitude
English Language
Reading Comprehension
General Knowledge
Current Affairs
Assam GK
Educational Concepts
Difficulty Level Analysis
Mathematics
Difficulty: Easy to Moderate
Mostly basic arithmetic, averages, ratios, speed, time and work.
Logical Reasoning
Difficulty: Moderate
Included coding-decoding, series, directions, arrangements, and figure-based reasoning.
Teaching Aptitude
Difficulty: Easy
Based on classroom management, pedagogy, learning process, and educational philosophy.
English
Difficulty: Easy to Moderate
Grammar, vocabulary, idioms, synonyms, antonyms, and comprehension passage.
General Knowledge & Current Affairs
Difficulty: Moderate
Questions covered national events, Assam GK, environment, AI, awards, education, and government schemes.
Expected Good Score
The actual cutoff may vary depending on category, number of candidates, and seat availability.
Why You Should Practice This Question Paper
Understand the latest exam pattern.
Analyse important topics.
Improve time management.
Identify repeated concepts.
Prepare effectively for future B.Ed. entrance examinations.
- Dibrugarh University B.Ed Entrance Exam Question Paper 2020
- Dibrugarh University B.Ed Common Entrance Test Question Paper 2022
- Dibrugarh University B.Ed Common Entrance Test Question Paper 2023
- Dibrugarh University B.Ed Common Entrance Test Question Paper 2024
- Dibrugarh University B.Ed CET Entrance 2025 Question Paper
FAQs
Is this the official question paper?
Yes. This is the question paper collected from candidates who appeared in the examination.
Is there negative marking?
Yes. 0.25 marks are deducted for every incorrect answer.
Can I download the PDF?
Yes. You can download the complete question paper PDF from the download link provided above.
Final Words
We hope this Dibrugarh University B.Ed. CET 2026 Question Paper with Answer Key helps you analyse your performance and prepare better for upcoming teacher education entrance examinations. If you find any mistake in the answer key or wish to suggest a correction, feel free to leave a comment. We will review it and update the article if necessary.
Stay connected with The Treasure Notes for the latest question papers, answer keys, study notes, and education updates from Assam and across India.
