Are you preparing for the HSLC Social Science Exam under ASSEB/SEBA? If so, having access to the latest question paper can be extremely helpful for your studies. Understanding the exam pattern, important topics, and frequently asked questions will boost your confidence and improve your performance.
In this post, we provide the HSLC Social Science Question Paper 2025, helping students analyze question trends and practice effectively. Whether you’re looking for previous year questions, marking schemes, or key concepts, this resource will be a valuable addition to your preparation strategy.
Subject Code: C4
Year: 2025
Subject: Social Science
Full Marks: 90
Pass Marks: 27
The figures in the margin indicate full marks for the questions.
SECTION—A
Choose the correct answer for the following questions (Q. No. 1 to Q. No. 45):
1. Which of the following statements are true about the Partition of Bengal in 1905?
(i) It resulted in the second important political upheaval in India after the 1857 Revolt.
(ii) It was executed to suppress the growing national consciousness in Bengal.
(iii) Shillong was made the capital of Eastern Bengal and Assam.
(iv) It led to the Swadeshi Movement.
(a) (i), (ii), (iv)
(b) (i), (iii), (iv)
(c) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
2. Which of the following best explains why Gopal Krishna Gokhale returned his 'Knighthood' title to the British Government?
(a) He felt the British Government was failing to provide adequate governance.
(b) He was unhappy with Britain’s Bengal partition policy.
(c) He sought to retire from public life and focus on personal matters.
(d) None of the above.
3. Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): The Swadeshi Movement in India aimed to promote indigenous goods and reduce dependency on British products.
Reason (R): The Swadeshi Movement primarily aimed to oppose British taxation and government loans.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
4. Who among the following edited a magazine Vande Mataram during the Swadeshi Movement in India?
(a) Aurobindo Ghosh
(b) Krishna Kumar Mitra
(c) Surendranath Banerjee
(d) Kumudini Mishra
5. Consider the following statements about the Non-Cooperation Movement. Which of the following options are correct?
(i) Salt laws were challenged.
(ii) Students left government schools.
(iii) There was unity between Hindus and Muslims.
(iv) Women did not participate.
(a) (i) and (iv)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (ii)
(d) (ii) and (iii)
6. Which of the following were provisions of the Indian Independence Act, 1947?
(i) India and Pakistan were to become independent on August 15, 1947.
(ii) Each dominion was to have a Prime Minister appointed by the king.
(iii) Two dominions of India and Pakistan were established, and their Constituent Assemblies were to decide whether to remain within the British Commonwealth of Nations or not.
(iv) The Legislatures of both dominions were restricted to making laws only under the supervision of the British Parliament.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iv)
7. Arrange the following historical events in the sequence they occurred from old to new:
(i) August Revolution
(ii) Direct Action Day
(iii) Simon Commission
(iv) Demand for complete independence
(a) (iii) → (iv) → (ii) → (i)
(b) (iii) → (ii) → (iv) → (i)
(c) (i) → (ii) → (iii) → (iv)
(d) (iv) → (iii) → (ii) → (i)
8. Choose the correct option based on the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R):
Assertion (A): In the last decades of the 19th century, Assam witnessed a series of peasant revolts.
Reason (R): The peasants organized themselves through public meetings.
(a) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
9. How did the British Government’s treatment of the leaders of the revolt of Manipur affect subsequent resistance movements in the region?
(a) It encouraged further resistance by demonstrating that British authority could be contested.
(b) It led to a decline in local resistance due to increased repression.
(c) It created a sense of cooperation between British authorities and local leaders.
(d) It did not have any significant impact on future resistance movements.
10. According to Heramba Kanta Borpujari, several Brahmin Purohits of Upper Assam joined the 1857 Revolt. Which was the correct reason for it?
(a) They supported the cause of the Ahom aristocracy.
(b) They lost their livelihood after the British annexed Assam.
(c) The British took away their excess Lakheraj (revenue-free) lands.
(d) They were inspired by nationalist sentiments.
11. The consumption of Abkari opium in Assam fell from 1615 maunds in 1920-21 to 993 maunds in 1922-23. Which of the following statements correctly explains the fall in consumption of opium?
(a) The British Government, recognizing the ill effects of opium consumption, restricted its sale.
(b) The public understood the harmful effects of opium consumption.
(c) The demand for opium among the public decreased.
(d) A vigorous anti-opium campaign was led by Congress workers.
12. From the following options, choose the programme and the movement led by Mahatma Gandhi, in which Leeladhar Baruah from Assam joined.
(a) Dandi March, Non-Cooperation Movement
(b) Dandi March, Civil Disobedience Movement
(c) Collection of funds through Tilak Swarajya Fund, Non-Cooperation Movement
(d) None of the above
13. Match the following and choose the correct answer:
(i) Ambikagiri Raychoudhury
(ii) Padmanath Gohain Baruah
(iii) Lakshminath Bezbarua
(iv) Anandaram Dhekial Phukan
(a) Gyan Pradayini Sabha
(b) Bandini Bharat
(c) Ahom Sabha
(d) Been Boragi
Options:
(a) (i)-(b), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(a)
(b) (i)-(c), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(d)
(c) (i)-(d), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(c)
(d) (i)-(a), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(c), (iv)-(b)
14. Which of the following is true about the Gandhara style?
(a) The central theme was Hindu deities.
(b) It developed mainly in western Uttar Pradesh.
(c) It was influenced by the Mathura style only.
(d) It is associated with the Greco-Roman style.
15. How does the cultural heritage of India reflect its historical diversity?
(a) Through uniform political history
(b) Through various languages, festivals, and arts representing different regions
(c) Through a unified national language
(d) Through a single style of architecture
16. Match the following and choose the correct answer:
(i) Kathakali
(ii) Bharatnatyam
(iii) Kathak
(iv) Kuchipudi
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Kerala
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Northern India
Options:
(a) (i)-(b), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(a)
(b) (i)-(c), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(d)
(c) (i)-(d), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(c)
(d) (i)-(a), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(b)
17. Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): During the Indus Valley Civilization, diverse ways of worshipping were observed, and various deities were worshipped by the people.
Reason (R): The ancient religious tradition of India accepted the principle of tolerance, co-existence, and assimilation among new traditions or religions.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, (R) is true.
18. Choose the correct set of statements about the IUCN from the options given below:
(i) IUCN was formed in the year 1948.
(ii) The full form of IUCN is Indian Union for Conservation of Nature.
(iii) WWF and World Conservation Monitoring Centre were established with the initiative of IUCN.
(iv) George Chisholm was the founder Director-General of IUCN.
(a) (i), (ii), (iii)
(b) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(c) (i), (iii)
(d) (i), (iv)
19. Which among the following options is correct for the quaternary sector of the economy?
(a) Community-based tourism
(b) Sales executive of a shopping mall
(c) Green bus service for public transportation
(d) None of the above
20. Two statements are given below, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Choose the correct answer based on these statements:
Assertion (A): With the change in society, simultaneous changes occur in the concept of resource, and consequent change in resource collection and use.
Reason (R): With the expansion of human knowledge and development of science and technology, many neutral stuffs and resistances are transformed into resources.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(b) (A) is correct, (R) is incorrect.
(c) (A) is incorrect, (R) is correct.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
21. Which of the following are correct regarding the conservation of resources?
(i) Economic use of resources considering the long-lasting developmental process
(ii) More and more use of non-renewable resources instead of renewable resources
(iii) Possible optimum utilization of resources without any destruction and misuse
(iv) Preservation of resources for the future without any use
(a) (i), (iv)
(b) (i), (ii)
(c) (ii), (iv)
(d) (i), (iii)
22. Two statements are given below, one as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Based on these statements, choose the most appropriate answer:
Assertion (A): Economic Geography studies human activities associated with production, distribution, consumption, and exchange of resources in spatial and temporal contexts.
Reason (R): Humans’ way of life and their economic activities are different in terms of spatio-temporal variations.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, (R) is true.
23. Which of the following sources of energy do/does not produce carbon dioxide?
(i) Wind energy
(ii) Geothermal energy
(iii) Hydroelectric energy
(iv) Fossil fuel
(a) (i)
(b) (i), (ii), (iii)
(c) (i), (iv)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
24. In the following question, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Considering these statements, choose the correct answer:
Assertion (A): Acid rain occurs when there is a maximum concentration of Sulphur dioxide and Nitrogen dioxide in the atmosphere.
Reason (R): Such rains destroy forests and pollute water in the wetlands.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) (A) is true, (R) is false.
(c) (A) is false, (R) is true.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
25. What will be the adverse effect of the melting of glaciers in high-altitude mountains and polar regions?
(i) Rise of sea level
(ii) Large extent of coastal areas will be submerged
(iii) Issues of water scarcity will be resolved
(iv) Biodiversity will be protected
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(b) (i), (iii)
(c) (ii), (iii)
(d) (i), (ii)
26. Consider the statements (i) and (ii) about the pollution of urban centres located on the banks of rivers, and choose the correct answer:
(i) Urban garbage and industrial waste pollute the water of the rivers flowing through or by the side of urban centres.
(ii) 55% of the total river length in the United States of America is polluted by chemical fertilizers and agricultural pollutants.
(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true.
(b) Both (i) and (ii) are false.
(c) (i) is true, (ii) is false.
(d) (i) is false, (ii) is true.
27. Consider the following statements in terms of regional environmental problems and choose the correct answer:
(i) Cities like Delhi, Bengaluru, Guwahati, Pune, etc., are facing a shortage of underground water.
(ii) River bank soil erosion is a serious environmental problem in states like West Bengal and Assam.
(a) (i) is true, (ii) is false.
(b) (i) is false, (ii) is true.
(c) Both (i) and (ii) are true.
(d) Both (i) and (ii) are false.
28. Which among the following statements are correct about the northern hemisphere?
(i) 67% of the land is confined in this region.
(ii) 90% of the world’s population lives in this region.
(iii) 57% of land is confined in this region.
(iv) 40% of the world’s population lives in this region.
(a) (i), (ii)
(b) (i), (iv)
(c) (ii), (iii)
(d) (iii), (iv)
29. Identify the ocean from the characteristics mentioned below:
(i) This ocean covers about one-third of the earth’s surface area.
(ii) The average depth of this ocean is about 5000 metres.
(iii) The oceanic trenches like the deepest Mariana trench, Aleutian, Kurile, Philippine, Tonga, Peru-Chile, etc., are important.
(a) Indian Ocean
(b) Pacific Ocean
(c) Atlantic Ocean
(d) Arctic Ocean
30. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(a) South America: Sahara Desert
(b) Atlantic Ocean: Mariana Trench
(c) Asia: Bering Strait
(d) North America: Death Valley
31. Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): Except the narrow coastal plains, the major part of the African continent is a large plateau; no high mountain range is there in the continent.
Reason (R): The Kilimanjaro peak located in the east is the highest place of the African continent.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) (A) is true, (R) is false.
(c) (A) is false, (R) is true.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
32. Arrange the following geographical divisions of the oceanic floor in the sequence they occur in increasing depth and find out the correct option:
(a) Continental Shelf
(b) Continental Slope
(c) Oceanic Ridge
(d) Deep Sea Plain
(e) Deep Sea Trench
(f) Oceanic Canyon
Options:
(a) (a) → (b) → (c) → (d) → (e) → (f)
(b) (a) → (c) → (b) → (d) → (f) → (e)
(c) (a) → (b) → (d) → (c) → (f) → (e)
(d) (a) → (b) → (c) → (f) → (d) → (e)
33. Arrange the chronological flow of migration of the following groups of people to Assam:
(i) Mongoloid
(ii) Austric
(iii) Aryan
(iv) Ahom
Options:
(a) (ii) → (i) → (iii) → (iv)
(b) (i) → (ii) → (iii) → (iv)
(c) (iii) → (ii) → (i) → (iv)
(d) (iv) → (iii) → (ii) → (i)
34. During which of the following decades did the State of Assam witness a lower growth rate of population as compared to India?
(a) 1901-1911
(b) 1981-1991
(c) 1991-2001
(d) 1941-1951
35. Why is a democratic government regarded as a better choice over other forms of government?
(i) It promotes equality among citizens.
(ii) It ensures economic progress.
(iii) It provides a method of resolving conflict.
(a) (i), (ii)
(b) (i), (iii)
(c) (ii), (iii)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii)
36. Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): To grasp the inner spirit of the Constitution, one should go through the Preamble of the Constitution.
Reason (R): Every word in the Preamble embodies the ideals, philosophy, and aims of the Constitution.
(a) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
37. Who can be the Chairman of the National Human Rights Commission?
(a) Retired Chief Justice of a High Court
(b) Retired Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(c) A retired judge of a High Court
(d) A retired judge of the Supreme Court
38. Which of the following organs are parts of the United Nations?
(i) Secretariat
(ii) United Nations Human Rights Commission
(iii) General Assembly
(iv) International Monetary Fund
(a) (i), (ii)
(b) (iii), (iv)
(c) (i), (iv)
(d) (i), (iii)
39. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the General Assembly of the United Nations?
(i) It is the biggest organ of the UNO.
(ii) It has ten temporary and five permanent members.
(iii) Its main function is to settle the cases filed by the affected member States.
(a) Only (i) is true.
(b) (i) and (ii) are true.
(c) (ii) and (iii) are true.
(d) (i) and (iii) are true.
40. Identify the incorrect statements stated below relating to cheque money:
(i) As a medium of exchange, it has universal acceptability.
(ii) Refusal to accept cheque money will mean violation of the law of the land.
(iii) Cheque money is circulated through economic offences.
(iv) A cheque is a claim against money and can be encashed at the counter of a bank.
(v) Only the Central Bank has the right to print and circulate cheque money.
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (v)
(b) (i), (ii), (iv), (v)
(c) (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)
(d) (i), (iii), (iv), (v)
41. Romen opens an account in Allahabad Bank with a sum of Rupees twenty thousand (₹20,000). After three months of opening, he again deposits ₹3,000 in his account. At the end of the financial year, the bank credits a sum of ₹550 as interest. Considering the above situation, choose the type of bank account Romen has:
(a) Current Deposit Account
(b) Fixed Deposit Account
(c) Recurring Deposit Account
(d) Savings Deposit Account
42. In the following question, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): Money is the most liquid asset.
Reason (R): Money can be instantly and directly transformed into goods and services as per the holder’s wish.
(a) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
43. Consider the statements (i) and (ii) about economic growth and development and choose the correct answer:
(i) Economic development is a qualitative concept, but economic growth is a quantitative concept.
(ii) Economic development is a narrow concept, whereas economic growth is a broader concept.
(a) (i) is true, (ii) is true.
(b) (i) is true, (ii) is false.
(c) (i) is false, (ii) is true.
(d) (i) is false, (ii) is false.
44. Who has the power to impose a tax in India?
(a) The President
(b) The Union Finance Minister
(c) The Prime Minister
(d) The Vice President
45. Match the following and find out the correct answer:
(i) Democratic Planning
(ii) Economic Planning
(iii) Grassroot Planning
(a) Involves administration in planning at the lowest level
(b) People participate at different stages of plan-making
(c) To attain a set of well-defined developmental objectives
Options:
(a) (i)-(b), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(a)
(b) (i)-(c), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(b)
(c) (i)-(a), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(c)
(d) (i)-(b), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(c)
SECTION—B
46. Compare the methods of protest used in the Swadeshi Movement with those employed in the earlier Indian Rebellion of 1857.
47. Look at the picture below and answer the question that follows: (2+1=3)
Identify any two architectural features of the Rang Ghar. Why was this architecture built during the Ahom period?
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