ASSEB Class 11 Political Science Solved Question Paper 2025 [AHSEC HS 1st Year Political Science Solved Paper]

ASSEB 11th Political Science Solved Question Paper 2025 is essential for all HS 1st Year students preparing for the AHSEC / ASSEB Class 11 Political Science Exam 2025. This solved paper helps students understand the latest exam pattern, marking scheme, and the type of questions asked in the HS 1st Year Political Science Question Paper 2025. Here you will get the complete ASSEB Class 11 Political Science Solved Question Paper 2025 with accurate and exam-oriented answers.

ASSEB Class 11 Political Science Solved Question Paper 2025

This HS 1st Year Political Science Solved Question Paper 2025 follows the official blueprint of ASSEB/AHSEC, ensuring that students get authentic and reliable solutions. The answers included in this ASSEB Political Science Solved Paper 2025 help you revise important chapters, theories, thinkers, constitutional topics, and political concepts strictly as per the exam requirements.

EXAMINATION: 2025  

POLITICAL SCIENCE  

Full Marks: 80, Pass Marks: 24, Time: 3 hours

The figures in the margin indicate full marks for the questions.  

PART-A (Marks: 40)  1 × 40 = 40   

1. The Greek word 'Polis' means
(a) city State (b) civil society (c) citizen (d) State
Answer: (a) city State

2. The autobiography written by Nelson Mandela is
(a) Hind Swaraj (b) Long Walk to Freedom (c) Freedom from Fear (d) Das Kapital
Answer: (b) Long Walk to Freedom

3. Right to work is a/an
(a) economic equality (b) political equality (c) social equality (d) cultural equality
Answer: (a) economic equality

4. Confucius was a
(a) Greek philosopher (b) Burmese philosopher (c) Chinese philosopher (d) Japanese philosopher
Answer: (c) Chinese philosopher

5. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was introduced in the General Assembly of the UN on
(a) 9th December, 1948 (b) 10th December, 1948 (c) 11th December, 1948 (d) 12th December, 1948
Answer: (b) 10th December, 1948

6. Who launched the Civil Rights Movement in the USA?
(a) Martin Luther King (b) Abraham Lincoln (c) Nelson Mandela (d) George Washington
Answer: (a) Martin Luther King

7. The word 'Nation' originated from the Latin word
(a) Nato (b) Natio (c) Naso (d) Native
Answer: (b) Natio

8. The opposite of 'secular State' is called
(a) theocratic State (b) feudal State (c) religious State (d) marginal State
Answer: (a) theocratic State

9. The author of the book, Republic is
(a) Plato (b) Aristotle (c) Socrates (d) Machiavelli
Answer: (a) Plato

10. Who is the author of the book, Hind Swaraj?
(a) Nathuram Godse (b) Mahatma Gandhi (c) Jayaprakash Narayan (d) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer: (b) Mahatma Gandhi

11. “Politics is a bridge between the city of human being and the city of God.” This statement was said by
(a) J. S. Mill (b) Aristotle (c) St. Augustine (d) Plato
Answer: (c) St. Augustine

12. The author of the book, On Liberty is
(a) Green (b) J. S. Mill (c) Gabriel Almond (d) Laski
Answer: (b) J. S. Mill

13. The movie of Deepa Mehta is
(a) Space (b) Water (c) Sky (d) Air
Answer: (b) Water

14. “Capitalism is the enemy of the world.” This was remarked by
(a) Karl Marx (b) Aristotle (c) Plato (d) Machiavelli
Answer: (a) Karl Marx

15. The book, A Theory of Justice is written by
(a) David Easton (b) John Rawls (c) Gabriel Almond (d) Aristotle
Answer: (b) John Rawls

16. The word 'Liberty' came from the Latin word
(a) Liber (b) Law (c) Lower (d) Liver
Answer: (a) Liber

17. Who among the following said that politics envelops us like the coils of a snake?
(a) Garner (b) Gandhiji (c) Gabriel Almond (d) David Easton
Answer: (b) Gandhiji

18. 'Veil of ignorance' was suggested by
(a) Karl Marx (b) J. S. Mill (c) John Rawls (d) Laski
Answer: (c) John Rawls

19. The author of the book, The Satanic Verses is
(a) Nelson Mandela (b) Martin Luther King (c) Abraham Lincoln (d) Salman Rushdie
Answer: (d) Salman Rushdie

20. According to John Locke, right to do anything is a/an
(a) natural right (b) social right (c) economic right (d) political right
Answer: (a) natural right

21. Who presented 'Objective Resolution' in the Constituent Assembly in India?
(a) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar (b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (d) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer: (d) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

22. In which Part of the Indian Constitution are the Fundamental Rights incorporated?
(a) Part III (b) Part IV (c) Part V (d) Part VI
Answer: (a) Part III

23. The Election Commission is responsible for
(a) Central Election only (b) State Election only (c) Local Administration Election only (d) both Central and State Election
Answer: (d) both Central and State Election

24. How many members are nominated by the President of India to the Rajya Sabha?
(a) 11 (b) 12 (c) 13 (d) 14
Answer: (b) 12

25. Money Bill can be introduced in
(a) the Lok Sabha (b) the Rajya Sabha (c) the Parliament (d) the Supreme Court
Answer: (a) the Lok Sabha

26. The presiding officer in a joint session of the Parliament is
(a) the President (b) the Vice President (c) the Speaker of the Lok Sabha (d) the Prime Minister
Answer: (c) the Speaker of the Lok Sabha

27. Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner in India?
(a) The President (b) The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court (c) The Prime Minister (d) The Governor
Answer: (a) The President

28. Who presents the Union Budget in the Lok Sabha?
(a) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha (b) The Finance Minister (c) The Prime Minister (d) The Vice President
Answer: (b) The Finance Minister

29. Within how many days, the Rajya Sabha has to give its opinion on a Money Bill?
(a) 10 days (b) 7 days (c) 13 days (d) 14 days
Answer: (d) 14 days

30. Who can remove the judges of the Supreme Court?
(a) The President (b) The Vice President (c) The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court (d) None of them
Answer: (a) The President

31. Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (b) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar (c) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru (d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Answer: (b) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar

32. Who is the ex officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?
(a) The Vice President (b) The President (c) The Prime Minister (d) The Governor
Answer: (a) The Vice President

33. When was the Indian Constitution adopted?
(a) 26th November, 1949 (b) 26th January, 1950 (c) 15th August, 1947 (d) 11th December, 1946
Answer: (a) 26th November, 1949

34. By which Constitutional Amendment was the right to property removed from the Fundamental Rights?
(a) 42nd Amendment, 1976 (b) 44th Amendment, 1978 (c) 25th Amendment, 1971 (d) None of the above
Answer: (b) 44th Amendment, 1978

35. Who is the Head of the State of India?
(a) The President (b) The Prime Minister (c) The Chief Minister (d) The Governor
Answer: (a) The President

36. The quorum of the Lok Sabha is
(a) one-tenth (b) one-third (c) one-fourth (d) None of the above
Answer: (a) one-tenth

37. Who can make laws on subjects in the Concurrent List?
(a) The Central Government (b) The State Government (c) The Supreme Court (d) Both Central and State Government
Answer: (d) Both Central and State Government

38. How many Fundamental Duties are incorporated in the Indian Constitution?
(a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 12 (d) 7
Answer: (b) 11

39. The Governor of an Indian State is appointed by
(a) the President (b) the Vice President (c) the Prime Minister (d) the Chief Minister of the concerned State
Answer: (a) the President

40. What is the tenure of Panchayats at present in India?
(a) 3 years (b) 5 years (c) 10 years (d) 12 years
Answer: (b) 5 years

 PART-B (Marks: 40)

(a) Write the meaning of Dirty Politics.
Answer: Dirty politics means using unfair, dishonest, and unethical methods such as corruption, bribery, false promises, and misuse of power to win elections or to stay in power.

(b) Write two differences between Positive liberty and Negative liberty.
Answer:

1. Positive liberty means freedom to develop one’s abilities and enjoy necessary conditions like education and opportunities.

2. Negative liberty means freedom from external interference or restrictions imposed by the government or others.

(c) What do you mean by Policy of Apartheid?
Answer: The policy of Apartheid was a system in South Africa where people were separated based on race, and the white population enjoyed special rights while Black people were denied equal rights and opportunities.

(d) Mention two Fundamental Duties of Indian citizen.
Answer:

1. To respect the Constitution, National Flag, and National Anthem.

2. To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, and wildlife.

(e) Mention two writs of the Supreme Court of India.
Answer:

1. Habeas Corpus – issued to produce a person who is illegally detained.

2. Mandamus – issued to command a public official to perform his duty.

(f) Mention two limitations of the Fundamental Rights of Indian citizens.
Answer:

1. Rights can be restricted in the interest of public order, morality, or health.

2. Rights can be limited for the security and sovereignty of the country.

(g) Mention two effects of the National Emergency in India.
Answer:

1. The Central Government becomes more powerful than the State Governments.

2. Fundamental Rights such as the Right to Freedom may be suspended.

(h) Mention two non-federal features of India.
Answer:

1. A strong central government with more powers than the states.

2. A single Constitution that is applicable to both the Union and the States.

(i) Why is India called a Republic country?
Answer: India is called a Republic because the head of the State, the President, is elected by the people’s representatives and is not a hereditary ruler.

(j) Write two functions of the Election Commission of India.
Answer:

1. Conducts and supervises free and fair elections in the country.

2. Prepares, maintains, and updates the electoral rolls (voter list).  

42. Answer any five of the following questions: (3 × 5 = 15)  

(a) Mention three hindrances to Secularism in India.
Answer:

1. Religious intolerance and communal conflicts between different groups.

2. Political parties using religion to gain votes.

3. Unequal treatment of communities due to social and economic differences.

(b) Mention three differences between Citizen and Alien.
Answer:

1. A citizen enjoys full political rights like voting; an alien cannot vote.

2. A citizen can hold public offices; an alien is not allowed to hold such posts.

3. A citizen has permanent membership of the State; an alien is only a temporary resident.

(c) Write three sources of the Indian Constitution.
Answer:

1. Government of India Act, 1935.

2. British, American, and Irish Constitutions.

3. Reports of the Constituent Assembly and various committees.

(d) Write three causes for the centralizing tendency in India.
Answer:

1. A strong central government created by the Constitution.

2. National emergencies that give more power to the Centre.

3. Economic planning controlled mainly by the Central Government.

(e) Write three characteristics of local self-government of India.
Answer:

1. It allows people to participate directly in local administration.

2. It manages local needs like roads, water supply, and sanitation.

3. It reduces the burden on the State and Central Governments.

(f) Write three functions of Welfare State.
Answer:

1. Provides social security measures like health, education, and housing.

2. Reduces inequality by helping the weaker sections.

3. Ensures economic development and social justice.

(g) Write three features of equality.
Answer:

1. Equal protection of laws for all citizens.

2. No discrimination on the basis of caste, religion, or gender.

3. Equal opportunities in education, jobs, and public life.

(h) Mention three qualities of good citizen.
Answer:

1. Obeys the laws and respects the Constitution.

2. Participates in public duties and helps in community welfare.

3. Shows tolerance and respects others’ rights and beliefs.

(i) Mention three factors of Nationalism.
Answer:

1. Common culture, language, and traditions.

2. Shared history and struggles of the people.

3. A feeling of unity and loyalty towards the nation.

(j) Write about any three types of Rights.
Answer:

1. Civil Rights: Rights like freedom of speech, equality before law.

2. Political Rights: Rights to vote, contest elections, and participate in government.

3. Economic Rights: Rights to work, fair wages, and social security..  

43. Answer any three of the following questions: (5 × 3 = 15)  

(a) Discuss the different features of Indian Federalism.
Answer:  The following are the different features of Indian Federalism:

1. The following are the division of powers: Powers are divided into Union List, State List, and Concurrent List.

2. The following are the features of the Constitution: It is written and partly rigid, clearly defining federal relations.

3. The following are the functions of the Judiciary: The Supreme Court settles Centre–State disputes and protects federal balance.

4. The following are the levels of government: There is a dual government system—Central Government and State Governments.

5. The following are the unitary features: India has a strong Centre, especially during emergencies, giving it a unitary bias.

(b) Discuss the arguments in favour of national self-determination.
Answer:
The following are the arguments in favour of national self-determination:

1. The following are the reasons for freedom: It allows people to decide their own political status and government.

2. The following are the cultural benefits: It protects the culture, language, and identity of the nation.

3. The following are the stability reasons: Self-governance reduces conflicts and brings political stability.

4. The following are the democratic reasons: It strengthens democratic participation and public involvement in governance.

5. The following are the reasons against oppression: It prevents domination and exploitation by foreign or external powers.

(c) Discuss the differences between the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy of India.
Answer:

Fundamental Rights	Directive Principles of State Policy
The following are the nature of rights: They are justiciable and can be enforced by courts.	The following are the nature of principles: They are non-justiciable and cannot be enforced by courts.
The following are the aims: They protect individual liberty.	The following are the aims: They promote social, economic, and political justice.
The following are the sources: Inspired by the American Constitution.	The following are the sources: Inspired by the Irish Constitution.
The following are the applications: They apply mainly to individuals.	The following are the applications: They guide the government in policymaking.
The following are the amendment rules: They have stronger constitutional protection.	The following are the amendment rules: They can be changed more easily to meet social needs.

(d) Write a note on the role of the Governor of a State of India.
Answer:  The following are the roles of the Governor of an Indian State:

1. The following are the executive powers: The Governor appoints the Chief Minister, other ministers, the Advocate General, and higher officials of the State.

2. The following are the legislative powers: The Governor summons, prorogues, and can dissolve the State Legislative Assembly. All bills become laws only after the Governor’s assent.

3. The following are the discretionary powers: The Governor can send reports to the President, reserve bills for the President’s consideration, and act independently in situations where no party has a clear majority.

4. The following are the financial powers: The State Budget is presented in the Legislature only with the permission of the Governor.

5. The following are the emergency powers: The Governor informs the President about the breakdown of constitutional machinery, which may lead to President’s Rule.

(e) Discuss the theory of justice given by John Rawls.
Answer:  The following are the key points of John Rawls’ theory of justice:

1. The following are the principles under the “veil of ignorance”: Rawls says people should choose principles of justice without knowing their caste, class, or wealth. This ensures fairness.

2. The following are the liberty principles: Every person should have equal basic rights such as freedom of speech, expression, and equality before law.

3. The following are the equality principles: Social and economic inequalities are acceptable only if they benefit the poorest sections of society (Difference Principle).

4. The following are the fairness rules: Public offices and opportunities must be open to everyone based on merit and equal chances.

5. The following are the main ideas: His theory combines freedom and equality, aiming to create a just, fair, and equal society.

(f) Discuss the utility of the study of political theory.
Answer:  The following are the utilities of studying political theory:

1. The following are the educational benefits: It helps people understand concepts like State, government, liberty, equality, and justice.

2. The following are the civic benefits: It creates responsible, aware citizens who can participate meaningfully in democracy.

3. The following are the practical benefits: Political theory guides policymakers in making fair laws and public policies.

4. The following are the moral benefits: It promotes values like tolerance, cooperation, and respect for others’ rights.

5. The following are the analytical benefits: It develops critical thinking and helps people understand political problems and find solutions.

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