The examination was conducted for admission to the B.Ed. programme of Bodoland University. The question paper contains 100 multiple-choice questions covering areas such as General Knowledge, Current Affairs, Indian Constitution, History, Science, Education, NEP 2020, Reasoning, Mathematics, English Grammar and Reading Comprehension.
B.Ed. Entrance Test 2026 – Exam Details
B.Ed. ENTRANCE TEST 2026
BODOLAND UNIVERSITY, KOKRAJHAR
SET - D
Time: 2 Hours | Full Marks: 100
1. Which country hosted the 2025 BRICS Summit?
A. India
B. Brazil
C. Russia
D. South Africa
2. According to recent international demographic estimates, India is currently the:
A. Second most populous country
B. Third most populous country
C. Most populous country
D. Fourth most populous country
3. India's planned indigenous space station, targeted for establishment by 2035, is known as:
A. Chandrayaan Station
B. Bharatiya Antariksh Station
C. Gaganyaan Orbital Station
D. Aditya Space Laboratory
4. The PM Vishwakarma Scheme primarily benefits:
A. Traditional artisans and craftspeople
B. Agricultural labourers
C. Self-help groups
D. MSME exporters
5. The Unified Payments Interface (UPI) has been developed by:
A. Reserve Bank of India
B. National Payments Corporation of India
C. Securities and Exchange Board of India
D. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
6. Which Indian state became the first to implement the Uniform Civil Code after Independence?
A. Gujarat
B. Uttarakhand
C. Assam
D. Himachal Pradesh
7. Which international organization publishes the World Economic Outlook (WEO) report?
A. World Bank
B. International Monetary Fund
C. World Trade Organization
D. Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development
8. Aadhaar is issued by:
A. National Informatics Centre (NIC)
B. Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
C. Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI)
D. National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)
9. The first edition of the World Audio Visual and Entertainment Summit (WAVES) was held in:
A. New Delhi
B. Mumbai
C. Hyderabad
D. Bengaluru
10. Which country became a full member of BRICS in January 2025?
A. Indonesia
B. Malaysia
C. Thailand
D. Vietnam
11. Which Article of the Constitution of India empowers the President to promulgate an Ordinance when Parliament is not in session?
A. Article 123
B. Article 143
C. Article 352
D. Article 356
12. Which Constitutional Amendment lowered the voting age in India from 21 years to 18 years?
A. 42nd Constitutional Amendment
B. 44th Constitutional Amendment
C. 61st Constitutional Amendment
D. 73rd Constitutional Amendment
13. The writ of Habeas Corpus is issued primarily to:
A. Prevent a public official from exceeding authority
B. To protect individual liberty against unlawful detention
C. Compel a public authority to perform a legal duty
D. Transfer a case from one court to another
14. Which one of the following is NOT a Fundamental Duty under Article 51A of the Constitution?
A. To develop scientific temper and the spirit of inquiry
B. To protect and improve the natural environment
C. To vote in public elections
D. To safeguard public property
15. Which Schedule of the Constitution contains the provisions relating to the Anti-Defection Law?
A. Ninth Schedule
B. Tenth Schedule
C. Eleventh Schedule
D. Twelfth Schedule
16. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments inserted the words "Socialist", "Secular", and "Integrity" into the Preamble of the Constitution of India?
A. 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976
B. 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978
C. 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985
D. 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002
17. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution is specifically protected from amendment under the Basic Structure Doctrine as established by the Supreme Court?
A. The Directive Principles of State Policy
B. Judicial Review
C. The Seventh Schedule
D. The Fifth Schedule
18. The doctrine of the 'Basic Structure' of the Constitution was first propounded by the Supreme Court in:
A. Shankari Prasad v. Union of India (1951)
B. Golak Nath v. State of Punjab (1967)
C. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973)
D. Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980)
19. Under which Article of the Constitution can the Supreme Court transfer cases from one High Court to another High Court involving the same or substantially the same questions of law?
A. Article 131
B. Article 136
C. Article 139A
D. Article 142
20. Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts gave constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC)?
A. 97th Constitutional Amendment Act
B. 101st Constitutional Amendment Act
C. 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act
D. 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act
21. The Battle of Plassey, which marked the beginning of British political dominance in India, was fought in:
A. 1757
B. 1761
C. 1764
D. 1772
22. The Permanent Settlement of Bengal was introduced by:
A. Lord Wellesley
B. Lord Cornwallis
C. Lord Hastings
D. Lord Ripon
23. Who presided over the first session of the Indian National Congress in 1885?
A. Dadabhai Naoroji
B. Allan Octavian Hume
C. Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee
D. Surendranath Banerjee
24. The Cabinet Mission arrived in India in:
A. 1942
B. 1945
C. 1946
D. 1947
25. Which Harappan site is well known for its dockyard, indicating maritime trade?
A. Kalibangan
B. Dholavira
C. Lothal
D. Rakhigarhi
26. The CRISPR-Cas9 system, which revolutionized modern biotechnology, is primarily used for:
A. Whole-genome sequencing
B. Gene editing
C. Protein purification
D. Stem-cell preservation
27. Which of the following greenhouse gases has the highest Global Warming Potential (GWP) over a 100-year time horizon?
A. Carbon dioxide (CO₂)
B. Methane (CH₄)
C. Nitrous oxide (N₂O)
D. Sulfur hexafluoride (SF₆)
28. According to Noether's theorem, the conservation of linear momentum is a consequence of:
A. Time translation symmetry
B. Rotational symmetry
C. Spatial translation symmetry
D. Gauge symmetry
29. According to the Hard and Soft Acids and Bases (HSAB) principle, which of the following acid-base pairs is expected to form the most stable complex?
A. Ag⁺ and I⁻
B. Al³⁺ and I⁻
C. Hg²⁺ and F⁻
D. Na⁺ and Cl⁻
30. Double fertilization in angiosperms results in the formation of:
A. One diploid zygote and one diploid endosperm
B. One haploid embryo and one triploid endosperm
C. One diploid zygote and one triploid endosperm
D. Two diploid embryos
31. NEP 2020 proposes to discontinue which degree?
A. PhD
B. M.Phil
C. M.A.
D. B.Ed
32. What is MERU?
A. Multidisciplinary Education and Research Universities
B. Modern Education and Rural Universities
C. Management Education and Research Units
D. Ministry of Education Research Unit
33. SEZ in NEP 2020 stands for:
A. Special Education Zones
B. Special Economic Zones
C. School Education Zones
D. State Education Zones
34. What is the primary focus of Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS) in the context of NEP?
A. Urban elite students
B. Tribal students (ST)
C. International students
D. Vocational training only
35. National Universalization of Elementary Education target concentrate on:
A. Retention, Achievement, Enrolments
B. Provision, Enrolments, Participation
C. Access, Retention, Attainment
D. Access, Provision, Participation
36. Gandhiji strongly advocated ______ compulsory education through the schemes of basic education
A. Five year
B. Four year
C. Fourteen year
D. Seven year
37. National Elementary Education Mission (NEEM) was set up in August:
A. 1987
B. 1995
C. 1990
D. 1994
38. One of the foremost interventions under UEE schemes is:
A. Publication
B. Research
C. Community Participation
D. Innovation
39. Which section of the RTE Act defines the duties of teachers?
A. Section 17
B. Section 23
C. Section 24
D. Section 25
40. In case of a dispute regarding RTE implementation, one must approach:
A. Police
B. NCPCR/SCPCR
C. Supreme Court
D. Local MLA
41. Doctor : Hospital :: Teacher : ?
A. Court
B. School
C. Office
D. Factory
42. If all cats are animals and some animals are dogs, which conclusion follows?
A. All cats are dogs
B. Some cats are dogs
C. No cat is a dog
D. Some dogs are cats
43. Find the odd one out:
A. Apple
B. Banana
C. Orange
D. Carrot
44. Complete the series: 5, 10, 20, 40, ?
A. 60
B. 70
C. 80
D. 90
45. A is B's brother. C is B's mother. D is C's father. How is A related to D?
A. Grandson
B. Son
C. Nephew
D. Brother
46. If '+' means '×', '×' means '−', '−' means '÷', and '÷' means '+', then 8 + 4 × 6 − 3 ÷ 2 = ?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 14
D. 16
47. Find the missing number: 2, 3, 5, 8, 12, ?
A. 15
B. 17
C. 18
D. 20
48. Pointing to a man, a woman said, “His mother is the only daughter of my mother.” How is the woman related to the man?
A. Mother
B. Aunt
C. Sister
D. Grandmother
49. Which word does not belong?
A. Chair
B. Table
C. Sofa
D. Window
50. Complete the analogy: Bird : Fly :: Fish : ?
A. Walk
B. Swim
C. Run
D. Jump
51. Choose the missing term: Z, X, V, T, R, ?
A. P
B. Q
C. O
D. N
52. If the day after tomorrow is Wednesday, what day is today?
A. Monday
B. Sunday
C. Tuesday
D. Saturday
53. 7, 14, 28, 56, ?
A. 84
B. 98
C. 112
D. 126
54. Flower : Bouquet :: Player : ?
A. Team
B. Coach
C. Field
D. Stadium
55. Which number is different?
A. 121
B. 169
C. 225
D. 289
56. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 24 minutes and 36 minutes respectively. If both pipes are opened together, how long will they take to fill the tank?
A. 20 minutes
B. 14.4 minutes
C. 18 minutes
D. 30 minutes
57. A shopkeeper allows successive discounts of 15%, 10% and 5%. What single discount is equivalent to these three discounts?
A. 30%
B. 25%
C. 28.5%
D. 27.3%
58. If the radius of a circle is increased by 20%, by what percentage does its area increase?
A. 44%
B. 40%
C. 20%
D. 48%
59. The ratio of the cost price to the selling price of an article is 5:6. What is the profit percentage?
A. 15%
B. 25%
C. 20%
D. 16⅔%
60. A train 180 m long is running at 72 km/h. How much time will it take to cross a tree?
A. 12 sec
B. 9 sec
C. 8 sec
D. 10 sec
61. The average of seven consecutive integers is 25. What is the greatest integer?
A. 28
B. 31
C. 27
D. 29
62. The LCM of two numbers is 72 and their ratio is 2:4. What is their sum?
A. 72
B. 90
C. 54
D. 108
63. What number should be added to each of 8, 18, 20 and 50 so that the resulting numbers are in proportion?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 2
D. 6
64. If 25% of A equals 40% of B, then what is A:B?
A. 8:5
B. 3:5
C. 5:3
D. 5:8
65. A merchant marks goods 30% above cost and allows 10% discount. What is the profit percentage?
A. 20%
B. 17%
C. 25%
D. 15%
66. If 18 men complete a work in 30 days, how many days will 30 men take?
A. 20 days
B. 15 days
C. 12 days
D. 18 days
67. An article is bought for Rs.1200 and sold for Rs.1380. Find the profit percentage.
A. 15%
B. 12%
C. 18%
D. 10%
68. A train 240 m long runs at 54 km/h. How long will it take to pass a standing man?
A. 20 sec
B. 14 sec
C. 16 sec
D. 18 sec
69. Find the simple interest on Rs.4500 for 3 years at 8% per annum.
A. Rs.1200
B. Rs.1080
C. Rs.960
D. Rs.900
70. Find the value of (26²−25²).
A. 53
B. 625
C. 49
D. 51
71. The loud music at the theatre give me
A. headache
B. headpain
C. headhurt
D. head-aching
72. Opposite of polite is
A. impolite
B. unpolite
C. dispolite
D. inpolite
73. The drink is available in three sizes: small, medium, and
A. big
B. huge
C. large
D. Giant
74. She .......... Orange juice on her cloths. (use the correct form of the verb)
A. pour
B. spill
C. drop
D. let
75. The town where I live is very different now. It ............ a lot.
A. has changed
B. changes
C. is changing
D. would change
76. Have you eaten a lot of sweets when you were a child? (replace with the right option)
A. Did you eat
B. Were you eating
C. Had you eaten
D. Shall you eat
77. “What's Madrid like?” “I don't know. I ........ not be there.” (replace with the right option)
A. haven't been
B. were not
C. was not
D. Were
78. Who is that woman? I ........ see her before, but I can't remember where. (replace with the right option)
A. Saw
B. had seen
C. have seen
D. had saw
79. I am flying an aeroplane. (choose the right passive voice)
A. An aeroplane is being flown by me
B. B. An aeroplane is flown by me.
C. An aeroplane was flown by me
D. An aeroplane was flown by I.
80. Kindly do not litter in public place. (Choose the correct passive voice)
A. You are ordered to not litter in public place
B. You are requested not to litter in public place
C. Do not litter please
D. You do not litter kindly.
81. This speed limit is to be introduced gradually. (choose the right active voice)
A. The authorities are to introduce this speed limit gradually.
B. Gradually this speed limit is to be introduced.
C. Gradually this speed limit will be introduced.
D. The authorities will gradually introduce this speed limit.
82. Who wrote it? (choose the right passive voice)
A. Who was it written by?
B. By who was it written?
C. It wrote by whom?
D. It written by whom?
83. ‘I have something to show you,’ I said to her. (choose the correct indirect speech)
A. I told her that I had something to show her.
B. I told to her that I have something to show her
C. I told her that I have something to show her
D. I told to her that I had something to show her
84. “Nothing grows in my garden. It never gets any sun,” she said. (choose the correct indirect speech)
A. She said that nothing grew in her garden and that it never got any sun.
B. She said that nothing grows in her garden and that it has never got any sun
C. She said that nothing grew in her garden and that it had never got any sun
D. She said that nothing grows in her garden and that it never got any sun
85. Rajesh said, “I am feeling cold.” (choose the correct indirect speech)
A. Irakdaw said that he is feeling cold.
B. Irakdaw said that he was feeling cold.
C. Irakdaw said that he felt cold.
D. Irakdaw had said that he was feeling cold.
Note: The printed options use “Irakdaw” although the question says “Rajesh.”
86. ‘Why are you looking through the keyhole?’ I said. (choose the correct indirect speech)
A. I asked if he was looking through the keyhole
B. I inquired if he was looking through the keyhole
C. I asked why he was looking through the keyhole.
D. I inquired why he were looking through the keyhole.
87. Robert must be fed up ........ studying.
A. in
B. of
C. with
D. in
88. I am good .... learning languages.
A. In
B. with
C. At
D. on
89. I prefer tea .... coffee
A. On
B. with
C. Over
D. to
90. We decided to travel .... train.
A. By
B. in
C. On
D. over
91. Choose the correct sentence
A. When he is return I'll give him the key.
B. When he returning I'll give him the key.
C. When he returns I give him the key.
D. When he returns I'll give him the key.
92. Choose the correct sentence
A. He'll be ready as soon as you be.
B. He'll be ready as sooner as you are.
C. He'll be ready as soon as you are.
D. He'll be ready as soon as you.
93. Choose the correct sentence
A. I'll stay in bed till the clock strikes seven.
B. I'll stay in bed until the clock strikes seven.
C. I'll stay in bed till the clock will strike seven.
D. I'll stay in bed until the clock is striking seven.
94. Choose the correct sentence
A. She will be delighted when she hear this.
B. She will be delighted when she hears this
C. She will be delighted when she heard this
D. She will be delighted when she hearing this
95. Choose the correct sentence
A. Sansarang is a better swimmer more than I am.
B. Sansarang is a better swimmer than me.
C. Sansarang is a better swimmer than I.
D. Sansarang is a better swimmer than I am.
96. Choose the correct sentence:
A. Dikhow will never agree to that plan, nor will she support anyone who does.
B. Dikhow will never agree to that plan, nor will she support anyone who does plan.
C. Dikhow will never agree to that plan, nor will she be support anyone who does.
D. Dikhow will never agree to that plan, nor she supporting anyone who does.
COMPREHENSION PASSAGE
Read the passage and choose the right option:
Revenge is a kind of wild justice; which the more man's nature runs to, the more ought law to weed out. For as for the first wrong, it doth but offend the law; but the revenge of that wrong, putteth the law out of office. Certainly, in taking revenge, a man is but even with his enemy; but in passing it over, he is superior; for it is a prince's part to pardon. And Solomon, I am sure, saith, it is the glory of a man, to pass by an offence. That which is past is gone, and irrevocable; and wise men have enough to do, with things present and to come; therefore, they do but trifle with themselves, that labor in past matters. There is no man doth a wrong, for wrong's sake; but thereby to purchase himself profit, or pleasure, or honor, or the like. Therefore, why should I be angry with a man, for loving himself better than me? And if any man should do wrong, merely out of nature, why, yet it is but like the thorn or briar, which prick and scratch, because they can do no other. The most tolerable sort of revenge, is for those wrongs which there is no law to remedy; but then let a man take heed, the revenge be such as there is no law to punish; else a man's enemy is still beforehand, and it is two for one. Some, when they take revenge, are desirous, the party should know, whence it cometh. This is the more generous. For the delight seemeth to be, not so much in doing the hurt, as in making the party repent. But base and crafty cowards, are like the arrow that flieth in the dark. Cosmus, duke of Florence, had a desperate saying against perfidious or neglecting friends, as if those wrongs were unpardonable; You shall read (saith he) we are commanded to forgive our enemies; but you never read, that we are commanded to forgive our friends. But yet the spirit of Job was in a better tune: Shall we (saith he) take good at God's hands, and not be content to take evil also? And so, of friends in a proportion. This is certain, that a man that studieth revenge, keepeth his own wounds green, which otherwise would heal, and do well. Public revenges are for the most part fortunate; as that for the death of Caesar; for the death of Pertinax; for the death of Henry the Third of France; and many more. But in private revenges, it is not so. Nay rather, vindictive persons live the life of witches; who, as they are mischievous, so end they infortunate.
97. The author is of the opinion that personal wrongs must be:
A. avenged
B. forgiven
C. accepted
D. remembered
98. A person who does a wrong does it so out of
A. self-love
B. hate for others
C. ignorance
D. none of these
99. Why do some people want the “party” know about the revenge when it “cometh”?
A. to make them feel scared
B. to make them repent
C. to make it enjoyable
D. to make them alert
100. The author compares a cowardly revenge with:
A. arrows shot in dark
B. vindictive people
C. justice seekers
D. Caesar
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Bodoland B.Ed. Entrance Test 2026 — Answer Key
Answer Key (1–100)
Download Bodoland B.Ed. Entrance Test 2026 Question Paper with Answer Key
Students preparing for the Bodoland University B.Ed. Entrance Test can use this question paper for practice and to understand the difficulty level and pattern of the examination.
Question Paper: B.Ed. Entrance Test 2026
University: Bodoland University, Kokrajhar
Total Questions: 100
Subjects and Topics Covered
The question paper includes questions from several areas, including:
Current Affairs and General Knowledge
Indian Polity and Constitution
Indian History
Science and Technology
Environment and General Science
NEP 2020 and Education
RTE Act
Logical Reasoning
Numerical Ability
Mathematics
English Grammar
Vocabulary
Sentence Correction
Voice and Narration
Reading Comprehension
B.Ed. Entrance Test 2026 Answer Key
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Important Note
The answer key provided here may not be 100% accurate. It has been prepared by carefully analysing the scanned question paper, but some questions contain ambiguous wording, printing errors, or options that may not include the exact correct answer. Therefore, candidates should verify the answers with the official answer key released by Bodoland University before treating this answer key as final.
Why This Question Paper Is Useful
Candidates can use the B.Ed. Entrance Test 2026 question paper to:
Understand the entrance examination pattern.
Identify important topics.
Practise MCQ-based questions.
Improve time management.
Analyse the difficulty level of the examination.
Prepare for future B.Ed. entrance examinations.
Conclusion
The Bodoland University B.Ed. Entrance Test 2026 paper provides a useful reference for candidates preparing for B.Ed. entrance examinations. The paper covers a wide range of topics, particularly General Knowledge, Education, NEP 2020, Reasoning, Mathematics and English.
Candidates are advised to practise the complete paper under exam-like conditions and cross-check the answer key with the official university answer key when it is released.
